Les meilleures ISEB BH0-010 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: BH0-010
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.3 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.14 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.15 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.16 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.20 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ITILF2011
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (The ITIL Foundation - 2011)
Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.3 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make
their customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major
change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.8 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are
these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often
undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT
infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: CISSP-ISSMP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (CISSP-ISSMP - Information Systems Security Management Professional)
Questions et réponses: 218 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following involves changing data prior to or during input to a computer in an effort to
commit fraud?
A. Data diddling
B. Wiretapping
C. Eavesdropping
D. Spoofing
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify his identity?
A. Social Engineering
B. Kerberos v5
C. Biometrics
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following fields of management focuses on establishing and maintaining consistency of a
system's or product's performance and its functional and physical attributes with its requirements, design,
and operational information throughout its life?
A. Configuration management
B. Risk management
C. Procurement management
D. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following protocols is used with a tunneling protocol to provide security?
A. FTP
B. IPX/SPX
C. IPSec
D. EAP
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency-management team
B. Damage-assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific
variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?
A. Business continuity plan
B. Disaster recovery plan
C. Continuity of Operations Plan
D. Contingency plan
Answer: D

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NO.7 Mark works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is involved in the BIA phase to create a
document to be used to help understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. The
impact might be financial or operational. Which of the following are the objectives related to the above
phase in which Mark is involved? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Resource requirements identification
B. Criticality prioritization
C. Down-time estimation
D. Performing vulnerability assessment
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following penetration testing phases involves reconnaissance or data gathering?
A. Attack phase
B. Pre-attack phase
C. Post-attack phase
D. Out-attack phase
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is the process performed between organizations that have unique hardware or
software that cannot be maintained at a hot or warm site?
A. Cold sites arrangement
B. Business impact analysis
C. Duplicate processing facilities
D. Reciprocal agreements
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is the best method to stop vulnerability attacks on a Web server?
A. Using strong passwords
B. Configuring a firewall
C. Implementing the latest virus scanner
D. Installing service packs and updates
Answer: D

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NO.11 Joseph works as a Software Developer for Web Tech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the
techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are
used to protect a part of software?
A. Code Security law
B. Trademark laws
C. Copyright laws
D. Patent laws
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through
applications?
A. Biba-Clark model
B. Bell-LaPadula
C. Clark-Wilson
D. Biba model
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following are the ways of sending secure e-mail messages over the Internet.? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)
A. TLS
B. PGP
C. S/MIME
D. IPSec
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 You work as a Senior Marketing Manger for Umbrella Inc. You find out that some of the software
applications on the systems were malfunctioning and also you were not able to access your remote
desktop session. You suspected that some malicious attack was performed on the network of the
company. You immediately called the incident response team to handle the situation who enquired the
Network Administrator to acquire all relevant information regarding the malfunctioning. The Network
Administrator informed the incident response team that he was reviewing the security of the network
which caused all these problems. Incident response team announced that this was a controlled event not
an incident. Which of the following steps of an incident handling process was performed by the incident
response team?
A. Containment
B. Eradication
C. Preparation
D. Identification
Answer: D

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company uses a secure wireless network. John
complains to you that his computer is not working properly. What type of security audit do you need to
conduct to resolve the problem?
A. Operational audit
B. Dependent audit
C. Non-operational audit
D. Independent audit
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?
A. Managed level
B. Defined level
C. Fundamental level
D. Repeatable level
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. Data downloading from the Internet
B. File and object access
C. Network logons and logoffs
D. Printer access
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following characteristics are described by the DIAP Information Readiness Assessment
function? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It performs vulnerability/threat analysis assessment.
B. It identifies and generates IA requirements.
C. It provides data needed to accurately assess IA readiness.
D. It provides for entry and storage of individual system data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 Which of the following subphases are defined in the maintenance phase of the life cycle models?
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Request control
D. Release control
Answer: A,C,D

ISC   CISSP-ISSMP   certification CISSP-ISSMP   certification CISSP-ISSMP

NO.20 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Integrity
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 000-274
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

IBM   000-274   000-274 examen

NO.2 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

IBM   000-274 examen   000-274

NO.3 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

IBM   certification 000-274   certification 000-274

NO.4 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-274   000-274

NO.5 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

IBM   000-274 examen   certification 000-274

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Code d'Examen: 000-M13
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following Lotus SameTime portlets displays a list of people currently logged into the page
or virtual page with whom the user is able to chat?
A. Who Is Here portlet
B. Lotus Web Conferencing portlet
C. Sametime Contact List portlet
D. Lotus Instant Messaging portlet
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-M13   certification 000-M13   000-M13   certification 000-M13   000-M13
This document was created with Win2PDF available at http://www.win2pdf.com.
The unregistered version of Win2PDF is for evaluation or non-commercial use only.
This page will not be added after purchasing Win2PDF.

NO.2 When viewing a list of documents in the Document Manager portlet, what can a user do to open a
document for editing?
A. Right-click the document and select Edit
B. Select the document, click the Edit Document link, and click Open File
C. Click the document name, click Edit from the document view panel, and click Open File
D. Double-click the document
Answer: AB

IBM   certification 000-M13   000-M13   000-M13 examen

NO.3 Which role type, when assigned for a specific resource, may act as a delegated administrator for that
resource?
A. Administrator
B. Security Administrator
C. Delegator
D. Manager
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-M13 examen   certification 000-M13   certification 000-M13   000-M13

NO.4 Which actions are allowed for users in the Editor role?
A. Creating, deleting, and configuring resources
B. Creating and configuring resources
C. Viewing portal content and creating resources
D. Creating and deleting resources
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-M13 examen   000-M13 examen   000-M13

NO.5 How is a portlet is packaged?
A. As an Enterprise Archive file
B. As a Java Archive file
C. As a Web module
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-175
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, Development (Entry))
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the correct JavaScript syntax to initialize a local variable named contact of a complex type
Contact?
A. contact = new Contact();
B. tw.local.contact = new Contact();
C. tw.local.contact = new tw.local.Contact();
D. tw.local.contact = new tw.object.Contact();
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-175   certification 000-175   certification 000-175

NO.2 An activity is defined as a conditional activity, and a script that returns a Boolean is written in the text
box in the Condition tab. What will happen if the script returns true?
A. The activity will be skipped.
B. The activity will be performed.
C. The activity will be performed if it is added to tw.system.process.selectedConditionalActivities.
D. The activity will be skipped even if the activity is added to
tw.system.process.selectedConditionalActivities.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-175   000-175   000-175

NO.3 For each section on a Coach, there is an HTML table generated in the background. How are table rows
dynamically defined or allocated? Based on the:
A. number of sections on the Coach.
B. number of Controls added to each section.
C. entry specified on the customization property.
D. Table Override property in the Presentation category.
Answer: B

IBM   000-175 examen   000-175   certification 000-175   000-175   000-175

NO.4 The service "Get Request ID" needs to know the number of existing requests of a particular type in
order to generate an ID for the request. It uses a nested service named "Get Request Count" for this
purpose. What can be determined about data mapping?
A. The type of the request is an output variable of the 'Get Request ID' service.
B. The unique ID for the request is an input variable to the 'Get Request ID' service.
C. The number of existing requests of a particular type is an input variable to the 'Get Request Count'
service.
D. The 'Get Request ID' service has a private variable that maps to the output from 'Get Request Count'
service.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-175   000-175   000-175 examen

NO.5 A developer was asked to create a Coach based on the company's form for processing a new employee.
For a copy of the company's form, refer to the Exhibit below.
Which simple primitive variable types should be used in this process?
A. idNumber (Integer), streetAddress (String), state (String), city (String)
B. idNumber (Integer), streetAddress (Integer), state (String), city (String)
C. idNumber (String), streetAddress (Address), state (Integer), city (String)
D. idNumber (String), streetAddress (Address), state (String), city (String)
Answer: A

IBM   000-175   000-175   certification 000-175   certification 000-175   000-175

NO.6 A bank has a home loan process containing an 'Approve Credit' activity with a service attached with the
same name. During the activity 'Approve Credit', a credit check is done and credit approval is based on
the amount to be borrowed and the borrower's credit score. The loan application has five pieces of data:
creditScore, newHomeAddress, amountToBorrow, creditApproved, and appraisalPassed. The data is
organized in a complex variable, loanApp. What is the minimum output from the 'Approve Credit' service?
A. loanApp
B. creditApproved
C. appraisalPassed
D. amountToBorrow
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-175   000-175

NO.7 To add a custom Coach XSL transformation to artifacts in a process application, the XSL file should be
added as:
A. a managed file.
B. a localization resource.
C. an installation service.
D. process application settings.
Answer: A

IBM   000-175   certification 000-175

NO.8 A developer needs to build the Coach shown in the following Exhibit.
What is the minimum number of sections the developer needs to create in the Coach?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-175   certification 000-175   000-175

NO.9 An application has five pieces of data: creditScore, newHomeAddress, amountToBorrow,
creditApproved, and appraisalPassed. The data is organized in a complex variable, loanApp. How should
the developer reference the credit score?
A. tw.local.creditScore
B. tw.loanApp.creditScore
C. tw.local.loanApp.creditScore
D. tw.local.approveCredit.loanApp.creditScore
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-175   000-175   000-175

NO.10 What is the default visibility property for all new controls?
A. Hidden
B. Editable
C. Disabled
D. Required
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-175   000-175

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Code d'Examen: 000-996
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ.V6.0.Solution Design)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following message standards is MOST appropriate for an enterprise that needs to
tag each application message with a 48 byte identifier?
A.Use the CorrelId field in the MQMD.
B.Use the ReplyToQ field from the MQMD.
C.Use the CorrelId field in the transmission queue header (MQXQH).
D.Use a customer specified message header to precede application data.
Correct:D

IBM examen   000-996 examen   000-996 examen

NO.2 An organization will use WebSphere MQ to connect its central z/OS systems to its 20 branch
offices. Each of the 20 offices runs applications on an AIX platform. The z/OS system supports
two z/OS LPARs. One is for production and the other is for both development and testing.
Separate AIX machines are available for production and testing and development. There will be
individual queue managers supporting production, testing and development. Which of the
following naming standards is MOST appropriate?
A.Channel names will be .to..
B.z/OS queue manager names will be MQQx where x= P, T, or D for the Production, Testing, and
Development environments.
C.AIX queue manager names will be AMQx where x= P, T, or D for the Production, Testing, and
Development environments.
D.Applications will query a z/OS DB2 table for the name of the correct queue manager to use.
Correct:A

IBM examen   000-996 examen   000-996 examen

NO.3 An application publishes documents in PDF format as WebSphere MQ RFH2 messages to a wide
range of recipient platforms. Which of the following is critical to ensure the documents are
processed correctly?
A.The National Language support on the recipient systems must match the code page with which the
PDF document was created.
B.The message format in the MQMD must be specified as MQFMT_NONE.
C.The PDF document size must not exceed 4MB.
D.This is only supported on Windows platforms.
Correct:B

IBM examen   000-996 examen   000-996 examen

NO.4 The WebSphere MQ client interface is popular in part because the client software is free, but this
is offset by a number of functional limitations. When deciding whether to deploy an application
with the client interface or with a local queue manager, these must be considered. Which of the
following is NOT a limitation of the WebSphere MQ client?
A.Clients cannot be centrally managed by WebSphere MQ tooling.
B.In the event of a network outage it can be difficult to determine if the last API call was actually
performed.
C.Data cannot be stored as messages by the client in the event of network outages.
D.Transactional processing with local units of work is not supported.
Correct:D

IBM examen   000-996 examen   000-996 examen

NO.5 A large enterprise has an MQ-based messaging infrastructure to support a diverse range of
applications across multiple platforms. A number of the applications are JAVA based. Some
execute in an iSeries environment. The enterprise must now begin to exchange messages with its
business partners using WebSphere MQ. Which of the following is the MOST important
consideration for the messages passed between the applications?
A.Data conversion issues are simplified if all messages are character strings.
B.The format for all messages must be an industry standard such as EDI, RosettaNet, cbXML, etc.
C.All messages must be digitally signed before being transmitted to the business partner.
D.All messages need to be encrypted before being transmitted to the business partner.
Correct:A

IBM examen   000-996 examen   000-996 examen

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Code d'Examen: 000-649
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rarional Software Architect)
Questions et réponses: 51 Q&As

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NO.1 Which support does RSA provide for RAS artifacts? (Choose three.)
A. imports RAS artifacts
B. browses RAS repositories
C. converts RAS assets into zip files
D. creates and packages RAS artifacts
Answer: ABD

IBM   000-649   certification 000-649   certification 000-649   000-649 examen

NO.2 Which statement is true about models and UML projects?
A. A UML project can only contain a single model.
B. Each UML project must contain a blank model.
C. A UML project can contain any number of models.
D. Models can only be added when the UML project is created.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-649   000-649 examen

NO.3 In RSA, which type of combined fragment is used in sequence diagrams to show the details of how one
object messages another?
A. optional fragment
B. messaging fragment
C. interaction use fragment
D. nested sequence fragment
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is true about Deployment Models?
A. Deployment Models are not supported in Rational Software Architect.
B. The Enterprise IT Design Model template includes a Deployment Model.
C. Deployment diagrams can be added to model templates to form Deployment Models.
D. The Deployment Model template and Analysis Model template both contain Deployment Models.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about Browse diagrams?
A. Browse diagrams are saved as .brx files.
B. You can change the layout of a Browse diagram.
C. Browse diagrams show all the elements of a given package.
D. Browse diagrams are driven by parameters and filters that you control.
Answer: D

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NO.6 To facilitate modeling, reusable assets can be used to share _____. (Choose four.)
A. profiles
B. models
C. patterns
D. transformations
E. JAVA test scripts
Answer: ABCD

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NO.7 Topic diagrams are defined based on _____.
A. design patterns
B. model templates
C. architectural discovery
D. a key model element and its relationships
Answer: D

IBM   000-649   certification 000-649   000-649 examen   000-649

NO.8 When should you consider partitioning a model into multiple files? (Choose two.)
A. when the model file becomes larger that 1 MB
B. when there are more than 10 packages in a model
C. when there are relationships to elements in more than one reference model
D. when the size or packaging structure of the model becomes unmanageable
Answer: AD

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This document was created with Win2PDF available at http://www.win2pdf.com.
The unregistered version of Win2PDF is for evaluation or non-commercial use only.
This page will not be added after purchasing Win2PDF.

NO.9 How do you add RSA model report templates?
A. update your RSA install via the Rational Product Updater
B. create a new RSA plug-in that extends the reporting capabilities
C. add a new report template to the project that contains the model
D. create a new report template and add its corresponding report format entry in the reports.manifest file
in the reporting plug-in
Answer: D

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NO.10 What indicates the level at which a model can be partitioned?
A. Class
B. Method
C. Diagram
D. Package
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-918
Nom d'Examen: IBM (System Administration for IBM Informix Dynamic Server V11)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the sqexplain output in the exhibit, which SQL statement will make the est_rows column accurate?
<e ip="918-a-1.jpg"></e>
A. update statistics high for table
B. update statistics high for systables
C. update statistics high for table orders
D. update statistics high for table customer
Answer:A

IBM examen   000-918   000-918 examen   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.2 Given the following 'onstat -g arc' information:
IBM Informix Dynamic Server Version 11.10.FC1 -- On-Line -- Up 45:18:13 -- 38912 Kbytes
num DBSpace Q Size Q Len Buffer partnum size scanner
Dbspaces - Archive Status
name number level date log log-position
rootdbs 1 0 02/11/2007.22:01 43 0x5338c
1 02/14/2007.22:01 66 0x1b2e8
2 02/16/2007.22:01 75 0x1d2e8
dbs1 2 0 02/14/2007.22:01 43 0x5338c
1 02/14/2007.22:01 66 0x1b2e8
2 02/16/2007.22:01 75 0x1d2e8
On February 16, 2007, at 1:00 PM, a chunk in dbspace bs1 encountered hardware failure.
Which method will restore all of the data, to the point of failure, to a replacement disk drive?
A. a level 0 and 2 restore followed by a logical log restore
B. a level 0 and 1 restore only
C. a level 0 and 1 restore followed by a logical log restore
D. a level 0, 1, and 2 restore followed by a logical log restore
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two parameters influence the total size of the resident portion of shared memory? (Choose
two.)
A. RESIDENT
B. BUFFERS
C. LOCKS
D. SHMBASE
E. PHYSBUFF
Answer: CE

IBM   certification 000-918   certification 000-918

NO.4 An IDS server has its LRU_MIN_DIRTY set to 1 and its LRU_MAX_DIRTY set to 2. Occasionally the
checkpointblocks user transactions from doing updates to the database for too long. How should the
database administrator correct
this situation?
A. Set onconfig parameter AUTO_CKPT to 1 and follow any advice in online.log.
B. Increase the number of page cleaners (i.e. flushers).
C. Increase the buffer pool size.
D. Set the onconfig parameter RTO_SERVER_RESTART to "on".
Answer:A

IBM examen   certification 000-918   certification 000-918   000-918 examen

NO.5 You are receiving an error when trying to drop a chunk that you think is empty. Which command will
show you if any object is still allocating part of the chunk?
A. oncheck -pe
B. onstat -d
C. oncheck -cD
D. oncheck -cc
Answer:A

IBM   000-918   000-918

NO.6 You detected excessive memory usage that might be caused by a memory leak in the application.
Which twocommands would be useful in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. onstat -u
B. onstat -g sql -r 120
C. onstat -g ses -r 60
D. onstat -g mgm
E. onstat -g mem
Answer: CE

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918 examen

NO.7 Which type of backup and restore (BAR) utility would be suited for restoring a single table from a level 0
backup to a specific point in time?
A. onbar
B. ontape
C. archecker
D. onarchive
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-918 examen   000-918 examen   000-918

NO.8 Which two protocols are used on a Linux platform for IPC connections? (Choose two.)
A. fast fiber
B. shared memory
C. stream pipe
D. named pipe
E. local loopback
Answer: BC

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NO.9 A database administrator uses the following onconfig parameters:
TAPEDEV = /foo/resdev
How will this affect ontape backup?
A. ontape will use the directory /foo/resdev if it exists for storage space backup.
B. ontape will use the definitions for TAPEBLK from the file /foo/resdev.
C. ontape will write an informational message to the file /foo/resdev.
D. ontape will use the definitions for TAPESIZE from the file /foo/resdev.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Both standard and temporary dbspaces are listed in the DBSPACETEMP configuration parameter or
environment variable. Which rule applies?
A. Sort, backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in temporary dbspaces if
adequate space
exists.
B. Backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in temporary dbspaces if
adequate space exists. Sort temporary tables are specified by the PSORT_DBTEMP environment
variable.
C. Sort, backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in all available dbspaces if
adequatespace exists.
D. Explicit temporary tables created without the WITH NO LOG option are created in the root dbspace.
Answer:A

IBM examen   certification 000-918   000-918   certification 000-918   000-918

NO.11 The table called "state" has lock mode set to row within an unbuffered logged database. The onconfig
file has
USELASTCOMMITTED 'COMMITTED READ' set. One user session has run the following:
begin work;
select * from state where code = "AK";
update state set sname = "ALASKA" where code = "AK";
The results from the SQL select statement run by user one was:
AK Alaska
Session two runs the following (session one is still connected):
set isolation to dirty read;
select * from state where code = "AK";
What will session two see when they run the above SQL statements?
A. AK and Alaska
B. AK and ALASKA
C. Error code 244 and isam 107.
D. The session waits until user one is finished processing.
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-918 examen   000-918 examen

NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, how does an IDS database administrator or programmer ensure that only committed data
will be seen and that no locking errors will occur?
<e ip="918-a-3.jpg"></e>
A. Change user 1 isolation level to dirty read.
B. Change user 2 isolation level to dirty read.
C. Change user 1 isolation level to committed read last committed.
D. Change user 2 isolation level to committed read last committed.
Answer: D

IBM   000-918   000-918 examen   000-918

NO.13 When determining the physical log size, what should you consider?
A. RTO_SERVER_RESTART configuration parameter
B. DYNAMIC_LOGS configuration parameter
C. PHYSBUFF configuration parameter
D. LOGFILES configuration parameter
Answer:A

certification IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.14 Which memory area is used for log records for smart objects?
A. virtual portion of shared memory
B. logical log buffers
C. /tmp
D. DBSPACETEMP
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-918 examen   000-918 examen   000-918

NO.15 A user wants to save SQL explain output to the file: /tmp/myexplain.out. Which syntax should be used?
A. set explain on file to /tmp/myexplain.out
B. set explain on file /tmp/myexplain.out
C. set explain file /tmp/myexplain.out
D. set explain file to /tmp/myexplain.out
Answer: D

IBM   000-918 examen   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918 examen

NO.16 What will the setting "SQLTRACE level=LOW,ntraces=2000,size=2,mode=global" within the Informix
onconfig file record?
A. statement statistics, statement text, and list of table names
B. statement text, host variables, and statement iterators
C. statement statistics, statement text, and statement iterators
D. statement text, statement iterators, and database name
Answer: C

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.17 Which two statements are true for an hierarchical routing topology when setting up SQLHOSTS
server group?(Choose two.)
A. Root and nonroot servers only need to maintain their leaf node server groups.
B. Root and nonroot servers must each maintain all server groups within the enterprise.
C. Enterprise Replication will transmit exactly the SQLHOSTS information, there is no need to maintain
them.
D. Each leaf server must have SQLHOSTS information only for itself and its parent.
E. SQLHOSTS entries for nodes that do not directly connect are not required.
Answer: BD

IBM examen   certification 000-918   certification 000-918   000-918 examen   000-918

NO.18 An Informix database server has been configured with the following parameters:
BAR_MAX_BACKUP 5
BAR_NB_XPORT_COUNT 4
BAR_XFER_BUF_SIZE 10
How many data buffers will be created during an onbar parallel backup attempt?
A. 50
B. 20
C. 40
D. 25
Answer: B

IBM   000-918   000-918   000-918   000-918

NO.19 Given the following message log information:
15.56:29 Physical Recovery Started at Page (1:1210).
15:56:29 Physical Recovery Complete: 147 Pages Examined, 10 Pages Restored.
15:56:29 Logical Recovery Started.
15:56:29 10 recovery worker threads will be started.
15:56:32 Logical Recovery has reached the transaction cleanup phase.
15:56:32 Logical Recovery Complete.
5 Committed, 2 Rolled Back, 0 Open, 0 Bad Locks
What would be the reason for the difference in 'Pages Examined' and 'Pages Restored' during physical
recovery?
A. The database server might physically log a page image multiple times between checkpoints.
B. The physical recovery restores only the first logged page image.
C. It is an expected behavior.
D. The physical log size is too large.
Answer:A

IBM   000-918 examen   000-918   000-918   000-918 examen

NO.20 Which command would be used to monitor disk activity per chunk?
A. onstat -g iog
B. onstat -d
C. onstat -g iof
D. onstat -F
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-315
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Message Broker v6.1, Solution Development)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 A Message Broker V6.1 developer receives a request to authenticate and authorize Web service
requests to a message flow with username and password provided as WS-Security username tokens
against a Microsoft Active Directory. Which action must be performed by the developer to fulfill this
request?
A.Set the Use HTTPS property of the SOAPInput node.
B.Add a username token in the WS-Security table of the SOAPInput node.
C.Add a username and a password as user-defined SOAP headers of the SOAPInput node.
D.Nothing, the Message Broker administrator that deploys the message associates the right security
profile.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The message flow shown in the Exhibit has been deployed to broker ROUTE_BRKR.
The broker's queue manager does not have a Dead Letter Queue nor a Backout Requeue Queue defined.
Error messages are being written to the local error log reporting there has been a problem with writing
failing persistent messages to queue CATCH.Q used by the CATCH Q node. The
MQMD.BACKOUTCOUNT equals 11 and the Backout threshold equals 5.
In which location should the developer find the failing message?
A.SYSTEM.DEAD.LETTER.QUEUE
B.The queue defined by the FAIL Q node
C.The queue defined by the INPUT Q node
D.In no location, the message is discarded
Answer: C

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NO.3 A developer who is very familiar with writing XPath expressions in the mapping editor has been asked
to convert several of the company's current message flows. The message flows use mappings to do
message transformation to message flows which use Java to do transformations. Which method call
should be used to help the developer more quickly write code to access messages?
A.callXPath
B.processXPath
C.mappingXPath
D.evaluateXPath
Answer: D

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NO.4 A message flow has been developed to receive a record with an MQInput node and store it by
appending it to a local file using the FileOutput node. When the message flow is tested by sending five
test messages, only the record from the last message gets stored in the local file. What is the most
probable cause of this behavior?
A.The file already exists in the mqsitransit directory.
B.The FileOutput node does not support appending data to an existing file.
C.The developer did not connect the Finish File terminal of the FileOutput node.
D.The Record definition property of the FileOutput node is set to "Record is Whole File".
Answer: D

IBM   000-315   certification 000-315   000-315

NO.5 A Message Broker V6.1 developer needs to put an HTTP input message onto an MQ queue for
downstream processing. After clearing the HTTP headers, what is the simplest way to build an MQMD?
A.Write ESQL code to construct an MQMD.
B.Let the MQOutput node build a default MQMD.
C.Use the SOAPExtract node to build an MQMD.
D.Use the ResetContentDescriptor node to build an MQMD.
Answer: B

IBM   000-315   000-315   000-315   000-315   000-315

NO.6 A Message Broker V6.1 developer wants to create a message flow that will act as a Web service. What
does the developer need to utilize to assure the message elements are uniquely identifiable by the
message flow parser?
A.WSDL
B.Namespace
C.HTTP Header
D.SOAP Envelope
Answer: B

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NO.7 A Message Broker V6.1 developer has been asked to develop a message flow to route
SOAP/HTTP-based Web service requests to the appropriate provider without access to the WSDL of the
providers. Which set of built-in nodes is the most appropriate for implementing this message flow?
A.An HTTPInput node, a Route node, an HTTPRequest node and an HTTPReply node.
B.A SOAPInput node, an EndpointLookup node, a SOAPRequest node and a SOAPReply node.
C.A SOAPInput node, a DatabaseRetrieve node, a SOAPRequest node and a SOAPReply node.
D.An HTTPInput node, a DatabaseRetrieve node, an HTTPRequest node and an HTTPReply node.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-315   000-315   certification 000-315   000-315 examen

NO.8 To meet business requirements, a message flow was developed to route activities based upon the
account identifier which contains the value 'Wealth Management'. The flow was developed using a Route
node. Given the filter expressions that have been configured in this node, multiple expressions may be
matched for any particular message. Which configurable property of the Route node would control
whether only one or all matching expressions are satisfied?
AFilters
B.Operator
C.Distribution mode
D.Match dynamic terminal
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-315   000-315 examen

NO.9 A Message Broker V6.1 developer is implementing a message flow with an JMSInput node,
JavaCompute node and a JMSReply node. The logic in the JavaCompute node inserts a record to a
database table using a JDBC Type 4 connection. Which three tasks have to be performed to ensure that
the JMS, the database and the JMS transactions are synchronized?
A.Create the JDBC connection using an XADataSource.
B.Set the Transaction mode of the JMSInput and JMSReply nodes to Local.
C.Set the Transaction mode of the JMSInput and JMSReply nodes to Global.
D.Set the Backout destination of the JMSInput node to hold In-doubt transactions.
E.Use the broker Java API getJDBCType4Connection to initiate the JDBC connection.
F.Configure a XAResourceManager for both the JDBC and JMS connections in the broker's queue
manager.
Answer: C E F

IBM   certification 000-315   000-315   000-315

NO.10 When designing an online auction store, one of the key architectural decisions made was to handle and
secure Web traffic using Message Broker V6.1. Two important aspects of security need to be addressed
in the solution: authentication and message integrity. Which transport node is the most appropriate for
implementing this scenario?
A.MQ
B.TCP
C.SOAP
D.HTTP
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-315 examen   000-315

NO.11 A flow is being developed to interact with an EIS system using one of the native adapter nodes. As part
of the development process, which artifacts should be dragged onto the flow editor canvas to create the
flow template?
A.WSDL
B.Business Object
C.Message Definition
D.Adapter Connection
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-315 examen   certification 000-315   000-315

NO.12 There is a requirement to integrate Message Broker V6.1 with a messaging system that conforms to
Java Message Service Specification V1.1. Which messaging transport should be used for integration
purposes?
A.MQ Mobile
B.Broker JMS
C.We Services
D.MQ Enterprise
Answer: B

IBM   000-315   000-315   000-315

NO.13 Which node is used to retrieve the WSDL port from WebSphere Service Registry and Repository that
could be used by a message flow to dynamically set the output destination?
A.SOAPRequest
B.HTTPRequest
C.RegistryLookup
D.EndpointLookup
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-315 examen   000-315

NO.14 A Message Broker V6.1 developer has been asked to develop a message flow that picks up a file every
minute from ftp server ftp.acme.com with ftpuser as the username and Pa$$w0rd as the password. The
developer has added a FileInput node to the message flow. Which three other tasks need to be
performed?
A.Set Polling interval of FileInput node to: 60.
B.Set ftp.acme.com as FTP server on FileInput node.
C.Set ftpuser as Security identity on FileInput node.
D.Set ftpuser/Pa$$w0rd as Security identity on FileInput node.
E.Issue the "mqsisetdbparms MY_BROKER -n ftp::ftpuser -u ftpuser -p Pa$$w0rd" runtime command.
F.Issue the "mqsicreateconfigurableservice MY_BROKER -c TCPIPServer -o 1452" runtime command.
Answer: B C E

IBM   000-315 examen   000-315   000-315

NO.15 A message flow developer is familiar with using XPath. The developer must implement a flow that
transforms a message from a COBOL copybook format into a SOAP message. Which two nodes should
the developer use to perform the transformation using XPath?
A.Mapping
B.Extract
C.JavaCompute
D.MQJMSTransform
E.JMSMQTransform
Answer: A C

IBM examen   000-315 examen   certification 000-315

NO.16 A message flow has been developed with a HTTPInput node (with XMLNSC as Message domain), a
Compute node (with the ESQL-snippet below) and a HTTPReply node. The message shown in the
Exhibit has been posted to the message flow.
DECLARE myRef REFERENCE TO InputRoot.XMLNSC.RoutingMsg.Body.Items[3];
MOVE myRef NEXTSIBLING;
SET OutputRoot.XMLNSC.Test.Name = myRef.Name;
What is the payload returned to the HTTP client?
A.<Test/>
B.<Test Name="Galvanized Washers"/>
C.<Test Name="Galvanized Lock Washers"/>
D.<Test><Name>Galvanized Lock Washers</Name></Test>
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-315   certification 000-315   000-315 examen

NO.17 A Message Broker V6.1 developer builds a message flow to act as a server for an MQ based
Request/Reply pattern that ends with an MQReply node. If a message is received that does not specify a
ReplyToQueue in the MQMD, what will the MQReply node do?
A.Throw an exception.
B.Put the message on the source queue.
C.Put the message on the backout queue.
D.Put the message on the dead letter queue.
Answer: A

IBM   000-315   000-315

NO.18 A Message Broker V6.1 message flow must invoke one out of five different Web services depending
on the content of the input message. Which implementation is the most appropriate to determine the
service provider?
A.Use a Filter node.
B.Establish a filter pattern in a Route node.
C.Dynamically route by using a RouteToLabel node.
D.Include a Compute node to filter based upon ESQL code.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-315   certification 000-315   000-315 examen

NO.19 Which component is the contract that describes to the Message Broker V6.1 developer how to build a
Web service request?
A.WSDL
B.Namespace
C.HTTP Header
D.SOAP Envelope
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-315   certification 000-315   000-315   000-315 examen

NO.20 A Message Broker V6.1 developer needs to work with a multipart message that exploits the MIME
standard. Which two mechanisms can be used to parse the content of the MIME parts?
A.Extract node
B.Validate node
C.ASBITSTREAM function
D.ResetContentDescriptor node
E.ESQL to parse the individual parts
Answer: D E

certification IBM   certification 000-315   000-315 examen   000-315   000-315 examen

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