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Code d'Examen: HP0-003
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Service Desk 5.x)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statements are TRUE regarding Workgroups? Select TWO.
A.Workgroups are used for object records assignment.
B.Workgroups are used to create departments in organizations.
C.A member of a parent workgroup is also a member of the related child workgroup.
D.A person can be a member of multiple workgroups.
Answer:A D

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NO.2 Which levels of organization can be stored in an organization record?
A.external and internal companies
B.internal companies and workgroups
C.companies, departments and employees
D.all organizational levels
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which two events are normally entered as Service Calls in HP OpenView Service Desk? Select TWO.
A.incidents from the IT infrastructure
B.Requests For Change (RFC)
C.automatic events from other applications
D.Requests For Information (RFI)
Answer:B D

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NO.4 When implementing Incident Management with HP OpenView Service Desk, what authorizations must
be defined when using Roles? Select THREE.
A.Forms & Templates
B.Objects
C.Scheduled Tasks
D.Filters
E.Workspaces
Answer:A B E

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NO.5 When exchanging configuration data between HP OpenView Service Desk Management Servers, what
requirements are essential? Select TWO.
A.The Management Servers must be the exact same version of Service Desk
B.Configuration Exchange Filters MUST be defined and associated with Filter Groups
C.The Service Desk Management Server MUST be rebooted after a Configuration Exchange Import
D.Duplicate Object entries must be removed in the Service Desk performing the Configuration Exchange
Import
Answer:A B

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NO.6 What types of persons can be registered in a person record?
A.employees and callers
B.employees and specialists
C.external contacts and employees
D.any type of person
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which statement about the Service Call Object in OpenView Service Desk is TRUE?
A.When a Service Call is closed it will be automatically added to the FAQ section on the web interface.
B.The deadline of a Service Call is determined by the priority-duration code table settings.
C.Service Calls can only be modified and closed by Service Desk Named Users.
D.Service Calls can only be received through the web interface and by telephone.
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which capability allows for the exporting of HP OpenView Service Desk configuration information from
one HP OpenView Service Desk database and the importing into another?
A.Archiving
B.Data Exchange
C.Configuration Exchange
D.Failover
Answer:C

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NO.9 The Checklist Wizard _______.
A.provides a list of regularly scheduled administrative tasks necessary to maintain the health of the
Service Desk application.
B.provides the Help Desk agent a list of questions to ask a customer when opening a specified type of
Service Call.
C.allows for the ease of Data Exchange configuration.
D.is used as part of the Configuration Exchange function.
Answer:B

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NO.10 How do Service Call records and Work Order records differ with respect to their link to a Configuration
Item?
A.A Service Call can be linked to multiple Configuration Items, while a Work Order can only be linked to
one Configuration Item.
B.A Work Order can be linked to multiple Configuration Items, while a Service Call can only be linked to
one Configuration Item.
C.A Work Order can only be related to Configuration Items via a Change record.
D.A Configuration Item cannot be linked to a Service Call and a Work Order simultaneously.
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y20
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 A ProCurve University IT manager is on-site with a task to configure six new ProCurve switches for
in-band management access. Which connectivity method will facilitate this? (Select two.)
A. Telnet
B. SNMP
C. menu interface
D. serial console
E. XMODEM
Answer: AB

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NO.2 After connecting five ProCurve Switch 5300xl switches, you find that Spanning Tree Protocol is
enabled by default and that some switch ports are in the Blocking state. Which statement best describes
the default Spanning Tree operation of ProCurve 5300xl switches? (Select two.)
A. All the switches use the standard version of Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. All ports are set to Fast Uplink mode, and because of the enhanced mode, their port status is shown as
"Blocking."
C. All the switches use Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol.
D. All the switches use Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
E. If any of the five switches' firmware supports Multiple Spanning Tree, all other switches automatically
switch to the Multiple Spanning Tree mode.
F. The switches will interoperate with neighboring switches that use Spanning Tree Protocol or Rapid
Spanning Tree Protocol.
Answer: CF

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NO.3 Which issues found in legacy core-oriented networking solutions can be resolved by migrating to
ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select two.)
A. Legacy core switches lack the capacity for implementing Layer 2 and Layer 3 redundancy
technologies.
B. Traffic forwarding must pass through core switch before routing, security, and prioritization tasks can be
performed.
C. Emerging protocols and standards such as IPv6 cannot be supported by legacy core switches.
D. As each switch is added at the edge, it increases the decision making load in the core and constrains
scalability.
E. Routers in core-oriented networks must perform more complicated packet manipulation than routers in
edge-oriented networks.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 An IT administrator enters the show flash command on a ProCurve switch. What will this command
display?
A. the configurations on the switch
B. the current version of software running
C. the configuration available in memory
D. a list of all software versions stored on the switch
Answer: D

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NO.5 In a Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol network using six ProCurve Switch 3500yl switches, you notice
that multiple switches have declared themselves Root in one of the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
instances. How can you correct this problem?
A. Modify the port priorities on all switch-to-switch links so that one switch has the highest priority value.
B. Set the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol parameters to use the switch with the highest hardware MAC
address as the Root switch.
C. Trace VLAN routing topology and modify the VLAN assignments on the switches so that they match.
D. Change the bridge discovery priorities on the switches to distinct values.
E. Check and modify the switches so that they have the same configuration name and revision number.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which statement is true about mesh switches configured with Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol
connected to non-meshed switches in the same spanning tree domain?
A. The mesh switches appear as a set of multiple blade switch units to the non-mesh switches.
B. The mesh switches cannot join a non-mesh topology even if all switches support Spanning Tree
Protocol.
C. A mesh topology appears as a normal cascaded topology with ports blocked by the Spanning Tree
Protocol services.
D. The mesh switches appear as a single logical switch to non-meshed switches.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. web interface
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. ProCurve Manager interface
Answer: AC

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NO.8 The IT manager of a medium-sized retail store is configuring a wireless network. As a first step in
securing the wireless network, the manager decides to enable the Closed system parameter on each of
the ProCurve Access Point 530 devices. What is the main difference between Open and Closed wireless
networks?
A. In an Open system, the SSID is advertised to clients; in a Closed system the SSID it is not advertised.
B. A Closed system requires the client's wireless MAC address be configured on the access point; an
Open system does not require MAC authentication.
C. A Closed system requires the client to have a pre-shared key; an Open system does not require a
pre-shared key.
D. An Open system requires the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication; a Closed system does not
require the use of 802.1X and RADIUS authentication.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the effect when switch ports are placed in Blocking state by Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward any secured
Telnet traffic.
B. The switch will only forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will not receive any
network user traffic through those ports.
C. The switch will not forward normal network user traffic through the ports, but will forward traffic related
to Link Aggregation Control Protocol and Bridge Protocol Data Units.
D. The ports are completely blocked and marked Not Used (zero transmission).
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which command must be entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch to ensure recent configuration
changes will not be lost when the switch is restarted?
A. write memory
B. save config
C. save flash -overwrite
D. commit change
E. write flash -overwrite
Answer: A

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NO.11 What information, normally associated with the wireless network name, is required by the wireless
clients in order to establish connections to the access point?
A. pre-shared key
B. Independent Basic Service Set
C. Service Set Identifier
D. shared secret
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. Time-Sync Wizard
B. CLI Wizard
C. IP Address Wizard
D. Configuration Wizard
E. Switch Update Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.13 An existing 1000Base-T link between two ProCurve 5406zl switches at a small university is configured
as a member of the faculty VLAN. After the IT manager configured a four-port trunk between the switches,
members of the college's faculty reported that they can no longer access servers that were available
before the trunk was installed. Which statement describes a likely solution for this problem?
A. A new link must be configured for the VLAN because the maximum number of VLANs that the port
trunk can support has been exceeded.
B. The port trunk must be configured for tagged membership in the faculty VLAN because port trunks do
not support untagged VLANs.
C. The switch-to-switch link must be added to the port trunk because the switches cannot simultaneously
support port trunks and single-port links between switches.
D. The port trunk must be configured for membership in the faculty VLAN because the trunk ports are
automatically assigned to the default VLAN as untagged members.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which configuration steps are required to enable a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to synchronize its clock
with a SNTP server located on a different IP subnet? (Select three.)
A. Enable SNTP.
B. Enable TimeP.
C. Define a default IP gateway.
D. Configure for SNTP broadcast mode.
E. Enter the IP address of the SNTP server.
Answer: ACE

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NO.15 The IT manager of a large call center has configured four ProCurve Switch 5412zl's for HP Switch
Meshing. How does a switch that is part of the mesh handle broadcast and multicast traffic that originates
from a port outside the mesh?
A. It will replace broadcast and multicast addresses with the unicast MAC addresses of its neighbors in
the mesh.
B. It will forward both broadcast and multicast traffic over ports that form the loop-free topology
established by the meshing protocol.
C. It will flood broadcast and multicast traffic through meshed and non-meshed ports.
D. It will send a query to its directly connected neighbors to find out whether any of the neighbors'
connected hosts can respond to broadcasts and multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the maximum number of port trunk groups a customer can define on a ProCurve Switch
5412zl being used to aggregate traffic at the distribution level?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: D

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NO.17 A ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) server located at an insurance company has been reported as not
discovering any manageable devices except those on the subnet where the PCM+ Management Server
resides. Which statement is true about this behavior?
A. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery messages do not cross router interfaces.
B. This behavior is normal because PCM+ discovery uses Link Layer Discovery Protocol, which only
survives one switch-to-switch hop.
C. This behavior indicates that PCM+ has been configured with an incorrect default gateway.
D. This behavior is normal because by default, automatic discovery only occurs on the subnet that the
PCM+ management server belongs to.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer that is installing several ProCurve 3500yl switches asks about the Link Layer Discovery
Protocol (LLDP) support capabilities on these switches. Which statement is true about LLDP operation?
A. It is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. The ports placed in Blocked state by Spanning Tree Protocol prevent LLDP messages from being
transmitted.
D. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system name and MAC address of neighbors.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the free trial period for ProCurve Manager Plus?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
Answer: B

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NO.20 When designing a wireless network, it is very important to consider the frequency range in which the
network operates and the maximum throughput of the network to ensure that it can meet the customer's
needs. Which wireless LAN standards specify frequency and maximum throughput of wireless networks?
(Select three.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11d
D. 802.11e
E. 802.11f
F. 802.11g
G. 802.11i
Answer: ABF

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NO.21 A customer inquires about configuring the IP address on a new ProCurve 3500yl switch. What can you
do to configure this information on the switch? (Select two.)
A. Connect to the switch using the Telnet interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign a
box-wide IP address.
B. Leave the switch at its factory default settings and allow it to acquire an IP address, mask, and default
gateway from a DHCP server.
C. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and
assign a box-wide IP address and mask.
D. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, enable
DHCP, and assign an address scope.
E. Connect to the switch using the serial console interface, enter the global configuration level, and assign
an IP address and mask within the context of the VLAN used for management access .
Answer: BE

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NO.22 In a ProCurve Switch 5300xl, you change the following using the CLI:
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# configure
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password manager
New password for Manager: *********
Please retype new password for Manager: ********
HP ProCurve Switch 5304XL# password operator
New password for Operator: *********
Please retype new password for Operator: *********
The new password for Manager is HPinvent# and the new password for Operator is hpINVENT!
Which login name and password are needed for the web interface if the administrator requires read/write
access? (Select two.)
A. Manager
B. hpINVENT!
C. HPinvent#
D. Operator
Answer: AC

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NO.23 You are configuring spanning tree on ProCurve switches at a customer site. Why would you configure
a particular switch to have a higher bridge priority? (Select two.)
A. to force all of the switch's ports to be blocked
B. to make it less likely that the switch's ports will be blocked
C. to cause the switch to remove BPDUs from the network
D. to make it more likely that the switch will become the root
E. to increase the path cost of all switch links
Answer: BD

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NO.24 Which ProCurve CLI command enables you to move from the Manager level to the Global
Configuration level?
A. global-su
B. su-enable
C. globalcfg
D. sw-disable
E. configure
Answer: E

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NO.25 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? (Select three.)
A. security
B. availability
C. convergence
D. reliability
E. upgradeability
F. mobility
G. cost-effectiveness
Answer: ACF

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NO.26 When considering the following options to manage a new installation of ProCurve network devices,
which options will support ProCurve Manager as a central management platform? (Select two.)
A. IBM p-series Server running IBM AIX 5L
B. HP Integrity Server running HP-UX 11i v3
C. HP Business Desktop running Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. HP ProLiant server running SuSE Linux Enterprise Server
E. HP ProLiant server running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
Answer: CE

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NO.27 When an IT manager of ProCurve University is configuring a ProCurve switch using the CLI, what is
indicated by the command prompt Switch_1A#?
A. The switch is located on floor 1, building A.
B. Host name for the switch has not been defined.
C. Current context is the global configuration level.
D. Current context is the manager level.
Answer: D

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NO.28 While presenting an overview of ProCurve Manager at a customer site, you differentiate between the
features of ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) and ProCurve Manager. Which features are only included in
PCM+? (Select two.)
A. VLAN management
B. alerts
C. automatic discovery
D. scheduled software updates
E. network topology mapping
Answer: AD

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NO.29 All of the ports that will be included in a newly developed mesh of four ProCurve 3500yl Series
switches are configured for membership in customer VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the
VLAN configuration?
A. The mesh ports will only be able to retain membership in a single untagged VLAN.
B. The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
C. The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
D. The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until the VLAN assignments are manually
configured.
Answer: B

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NO.30 You must test and qualify new ProCurve switch software in a production network limited to a single
switch. Which two tasks combined enable you to test and qualify the new software without losing the
existing qualified production software? (Select two.)
A. Boot the switch to the secondary flash.
B. Upload the new software to a VLAN flash.
C. Boot the switch to the new software.
D. Dump the qualified software to a file and upload the new software.
E. Reset the VLAN to boot to the new software in the VLAN flash.
F. Upload the new software to secondary flash.
Answer: AF

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M17
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Performance Center User Site)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 Where do you configure the post-run analysis settings?
A.in the Change Project page
B.in the Options tab of the Timeslots page
C.in the General tab on the Project Status page
D.in the Timeslot Details tab of the Timeslots page
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the minimum length of a Timeslot?
A.one hour
B.30 minutes
C.45 minutes
D.15 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.3 What type of valid input data is already resident in the Application Under Tests (AUT) database?
A.master data
B.external data
C.user generated data
D.Performance Center data
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does the Timeout tab set the timeout interval for? (Select two.)
A.commands
B.Vuser quotas
C.Vuser scripts
D.Vuser elapsed time
E.number of monitors
Answer: AD

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NO.5 From where can your teams view analysis data for your load tests?
A.from the user site
B.from the controller machine
C.from the Local Area Network
D.from the load generator machine
Answer: A

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NO.6 The database server receives information from four components. What are these components? (Select
four.)
A.User site
B.File server
C.Utility server
D.Administration site
E.Controller machine
F.Load generator machine
Answer: ACDE

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NO.7 What does Vuser initialization refer to? (Select two.)
A.access the User site
B.prepare the Controller monitors
C.prepare the Vusers for a load test
D.gather available Timeslot information
E.prepare the Load Generator machines for a load test run
Answer: CE

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NO.8 In Performance Center architecture, which component allows you to manage resources and supervise
technical information?
A.Utility server
B.Database server
C.Administration site
D.Controller machine
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is Performance Centers primary tool for developing Vuser scripts?
A.VuGen
B.Quality Center
C.Quick Test Professional
D.performance engineers
Answer: A

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NO.10 When you upload a VuGen script into Performance Center, which file extension change needs to be
made?
A..USZ to .ZIP
B..ZIP to .NET
C..DOC to .ZIP
D..HTML to .DOC
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y17
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Guest Login feature on the AP 530?
A. enable guests to use the built-in guest account for Web-Auth
B. enable guests to register as users during the log-in process
C. enable guests to obtain certificates necessary for 802.1X authentication
D. enable guests to obtain IP addresses local to the AP during authentication
Answer: A

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NO.2 When is the intrusion detection capability enabled on the Wireless Edge Services zl Module?
A. when routing is enabled
B. when the module is installed
C. when the first WLAN is enabled
D. when the built-in firewall is enabled
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is an advantage of configuring a ProCurve Radio Port for passive scanning instead of dedicated
scanning for rogue AP detection?
A. The RP can continue serving clients while scanning.
B. The RP can be assigned to a Quarantine VLAN in PCM+.
C. The RP can be configured to scan selected radio frequencies.
D. The RP can send SNMP traps to PCM+ when rogue APs are detected.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which secure mobility features are available on a standalone AP 530? (Select two.)
A. Web-Auth
B. built-in firewall
C. built-in RADIUS
D. VLAN-based ACLs
E. user-based policies
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which circumstance requires Layer 3 adoption of a radio port by a Wireless Edge Services zl Module?
A. The RP must be part of a Layer 3 mobility domain.
B. The RP is located in a different broadcast domain than the module's downlink.
C. The RP must support users who will be assigned IP addresses in different networks.
D. The RP must obtain an IP address for enforcement of ACLs configured on the module.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You must configure Identity Driven Manager to control access for five user groups to a file server at a
customer site. Which IDM object must be configured to enable you to identify this server in Access Rules?
A. Location
B. Access Policy
C. Access Profile
D. Network Resource
Answer: D

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NO.7 On the Wireless Edge Services zl Module, which interfaces can be associated with a single IP ACL?
A. all VLAN interfaces and the downlink
B. all VLAN interfaces, the downlink, and the uplink
C. one VLAN interface, the downlink, and the uplink
D. all VLAN interfaces and either the downlink or the uplink
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the rule governing the number and type of ACLs that can be applied to a VLAN on a Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. The VLAN can support one IP ACL.
B. The VLAN can support one IP ACL or one MAC ACL.
C. The VLAN can support one IP ACL and one MAC ACL.
D. The VLAN can support all ACLs configured on the module.
Answer: A

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NO.9 At a customer site, you have configured a Guest WLAN on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module. The
WLAN will use Web-Auth to authenticate Guest users, who will be placed in VLAN 55. What other step is
required to enable this configuration?
A. Enable IP routing for all VLANs configured on the module.
B. Configure a static route to VLAN 55 on the enterprise's routers.
C. Configure an IP interface associated with VLAN 55 on the module.
D. Add the address of the VLAN 55 default gateway to the module's Allowed List.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which option is provided by the advanced customization feature for Web-Auth pages on the Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. the ability to customize logos and text on Web-Auth pages
B. the ability to use Web-Auth pages stored on an external web server
C. the ability to install and use customized Web-Auth pages on the module
D. the ability to display different Web-Auth pages for failed and successful authentication
Answer: C

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NO.11 At a customer site, you have enabled and activated 802.1X authentication for ports 1-4 on a Switch
3500yl. VLAN membership of the ports is at default settings. Users connecting to the switch will
authenticate using Windows IAS and be assigned to VLANs based on policies applied by Identity Driven
Manager. You enter the following command:
3500.l(config)#aaa port-access authenticator ethernet 1-4 unauth-vid 33
What is the VLAN membership of these ports while no clients are connected?
A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 33
C. VLAN assigned by IDM
D. VLAN assigned by RADIUS server
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which configuration step will enable a ProCurve Radio Port to obtain the IP address of a Wireless
Module during Layer 3 adoption?
A. Configure DHCP Relay on the Wireless Module.
B. Define the Wireless Module as a RADIUS client in Windows IAS.
C. Define Option 189 on the DHCP server for the scope serving the RP.
D. Configure IP helper on the RP's default gateway to forward requests to the Wireless Module's DHCP
server.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You must configure an ACL on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module, and attach the ACL to VLAN 55.
This VLAN is associated with the Marketing WLAN on the module and does not exist on any other
infrastructure device in the customer network. When will traffic be filtered by this ACL?
A. when it arrives on VLAN 55 from a wireless client
B. only when it is forwarded from the module downlink to the module uplink
C. when it arrives from the wired network and is forwarded to VLAN 55 hosts
D. when it is routed from VLAN 55 to another VLAN configured on the module
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement describes the relationship between Identity Driven Manager and an enterprise
RADIUS server?
A. IDM acts as a graphical interface for the configuration of RADIUS policies.
B. IDM provides a RADIUS proxy server for users affected by IDM Access Rules.
C. IDM applies the RADIUS server's Remote Access Policies to authenticated users.
D. IDM enables the RADIUS server to specify VLAN assignments for authenticated users.
Answer: A

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NO.15 When routing is enabled on a Wireless Module, which configuration is necessary on adjacent
enterprise routers?
A. a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP or OSPF
B. interfaces in all VLANs configured on the Wireless Module
C. DHCP relay for all VLANs configured on the Wireless Module
D. static routes to IP networks configured on the Wireless Module
Answer: D

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NO.16 You must configure a Wireless Edge Services zl Module so that clients will be subject to router-based
ACLs based on IP address range. Which module feature enables you to support this strategy?
A. DHCP relay
B. Layer 3 mobility
C. built-in RADIUS server
D. dynamic VLAN assignment
Answer: D

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NO.17 The management interface for the IDS on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module reports that the
configured threshold for excessive association attempts by a station is set to 0. What does this indicate?
A. The IDS has not detected any events of this type.
B. The IDS is not scanning for this type of event.
C. No RPs have been configured for intrusion detection.
D. No users are associated with WLANs configured for intrusion detection.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is an advantage of using Web-Auth, instead of 802.1X, for authentication of guests?
A. Web-Auth eliminates the need for data encryption.
B. Web-Auth places less load on enterprise RADIUS servers.
C. Web-Auth does not require the installation of supplicant software on client computers.
D. Web-Auth enables the authentication of devices that do not provide interfaces for users to enter
credentials.
Answer: C

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NO.19 By default, which port or ports become members of VLAN 2100 when a Wireless Edge Services zl
Module is installed in a 5406zl switch?
A. Wireless Module uplink port
B. ports where PoE is enabled
C. Wireless Module downlink port
D. ports connected to PoE switches
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which ProCurve secure mobility solution requires the installation of a RADIUS agent on the enterprise
RADIUS server?
A. Access Point 530
B. Identity Driven Manager
C. ProCurve Mobility Manager
D. Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.21 At a customer site, you have enabled routing on a Wireless Edge Services zl Module installed in a
5406zl switch. Under what circumstance is configuration of a default route on the module unnecessary?
A. when the 5406zl is the only router adjacent to the Wireless Module
B. when RIP is configured on the router upstream from the Wireless Module
C. when VLANs configured on the Wireless Module also are configured on other routers
D. when a default gateway has already been defined on the Wireless Module to enable Layer 2
connectivity
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which feature of the Wireless Edge Services zl Module enables the reporting of excessive
authentication attempts?
A. AP detection
B. built-in firewall
C. Access Control Lists
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: D

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NO.23 What is an advantage of implementing Layer 3 routing instead of Layer 2 forwarding on the Wireless
Edge Services zl Module?
A. It enables termination of user VLANs at the network edge.
B. It enables wireless users to have different access than wired users.
C. It enables the application of different security policies for wired and wireless users.
D. It enables communication between wireless users without using resources of the switch hosting the
module.
Answer: A

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NO.24 What is a difference between the Web-Auth features on the AP 530 and the Wireless Edge Services zl
Module?
A. The AP 530 does not support 802.1X for Web-Auth clients.
B. The AP 530 does not support WPA encryption for Web-Auth clients.
C. The AP 530 does not support customization of text on the Login page.
D. The AP 530 does not enable the loading of custom web pages from external servers.
Answer: D

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NO.25 In Identity Driven Manager, what is the default setting for access control based on time of connection?
A. Access is allowed at all times.
B. Access is not permitted at any time.
C. Access is permitted during normal business hours.
D. Access is permitted at times configured during installation.
Answer: A

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NO.26 At a customer site, you must configure a Switch 5400zl and Identity Driven Manager to authenticate
Sales users and place them in VLAN 48. Which steps are necessary to complete this configuration?
(Select three.)
A. Configure VLAN 48 on the Switch 5400zl.
B. Enable 802.1X authentication for all affected switch ports.
C. Assign all affected switch ports to VLAN 48 as tagged members.
D. Define VLAN 48 as the unauthorized VID for all affected switch ports.
E. Add all Sales users to the list of RADIUS clients on the authentication server.
F. Define an IDM Access Profile and Access Rule associating Sales users with VLAN 48.
Answer: ABF

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NO.27 What is an advantage of using the Wireless Module instead of the AP 530 to detect rogue APs?
A. The Wireless Module supports passive scanning as well as dedicated scanning.
B. The Wireless Module can be configured to require APs to submit 802.1X credentials.
C. The Wireless Module provides an administrative interface for identifying authorized and unauthorized
APs.
D. The Wireless Module's built-in firewall prevents users associated with unauthorized APs from
accessing network resources.
Answer: C

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NO.28 You have configured 802.1X authentication for four ports on a Switch 2600-8-PWR. One of the ports is
connected to an AP 530 in a conference room at a customer site. To ensure users connecting through
both devices have the same access rights, you have added the switch ports to an IDM Location that
already includes the AP 530. During a test, users connecting to the AP 530 are assigned to the correct
Access Policy. Users connecting through the switch ports receive the Default Access Policy. How can you
correct this configuration?
A. Edit the Location to support 802.1X over wired devices.
B. Add the switch and the AP 530 to the same group in Mobility Manager.
C. Configure 802.1X authentication on the switch port connected to the AP.
D. Set the WLAN parameter to ANY in the IDM Access Rule for the users.
Answer: D

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NO.29 You have configured AP detection on two Radio Ports connected to a Wireless Edge Services zl
Module. Which step is necessary to enable ProCurve Manager Plus with Mobility Manager to display
information about the detected APs?
A. Configure IP addresses on the RPs.
B. Configure SNMP traps on the Wireless Module.
C. Define a detection alert in the PCM+ Events viewer.
D. Add the RPs to a detection group in Mobility Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.30 At a customer site, you must configure three ports on a Switch 2610-24-PWR to authenticate users as
part of a unified wired and wireless solution that will use Identity Driven Manager to apply access policies.
Which device's IP address do you require for this configuration?
A. RADIUS server
B. PCM+/IDM server
C. Certification Authority
D. Windows Domain Controller
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP2-061
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance )
Questions et réponses: 365 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the two essential building blocks of modular PDUs? Select TWO.
A. control unit
B. extension bars
C. SNMP/serial card
D. extended runtime module
E. 1U/0U mounting brackets
Answer: C, E

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of P-class Blade Server Enclosures supported by one
Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the minimum number of drivesneeded in RAID ADG?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.4 WhichHP web offering provides an easy way to get the most up to date parts information
without detailed instructions?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP SIM Homepage
C. HP Parts Exchange
D. HP Onsite Agent's Reference (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.5 WhichHP ProLiant Server feature communicates regularly with the HP Server Health
Driver to provide automatic restarting after a processor failure?
A. Embedded HP Diagnostic Utility
B. RBSU - Rom Based Server Utility
C. ASR - Automatic Server Recovery
D. HP Systems Management Homepage
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the only RAID level that can sustain two simultaneous drive failures?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.7 How do you migrate a four disk RAID 0+1 volume on a SmartArray controller to RAID
5?
A. Use the Windows Disk Management applet.
B. In Windows, run the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
C. Boot the system and press F9 to access the ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
D. Boot the system and press F8 to access the Online ROM Configuration for Arrays
(ORCA) utility.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which item is required to troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. network interconnect adapter
B. diagnostic adapter and station
C. server blade management module
D. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
Answer: B

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NO.9 On which server family is the iLO Advanced Pack enabled by default?
A. BL servers
B. CL servers
C. DL servers
D. ML servers
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer would liketo move four 73GB universal SCSI drives from their DL380 to
their MSA1500. Whichdrive shelf must be used to support the four 73GB drives on the
MSA1500?
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA500
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are properties of Advanced Data Guarding? Select TWO.
A. It is recommended for up to 14 drives.
B. It protects against a ROM failure or corruption.
C. It protects against two simultaneous drive failures.
D. It allocates two sets of parity data across the drives and allows simultaneous write
operations.
E. It allocates half of the drive to data and the other half to mirrored data, providing two
copies of every file.
Answer: C, D

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NO.12 Which statements are true regarding PCI-X technology?Select TWO.
A. In a PCI-X system the speed is determined by the fastest device.
B. Conventional PCI adapters can operate in PCI-X systems and vice versa.
C. A PCI-X adapter placed on a conventional PCI bus is not limited to conventional PCI
speeds.
D. PCI-X is forward and backward compatible with PCI 2.2 systems at the system,
device driver and adapter levels.
Answer: A, B

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NO.13 WhichHP CD/DVD set provides HP service and technical support information and
includes advisories, release notes, as well as, product documentation?
A. HP Services Media Library
B. HP Part Surfer Reference Set
C. HP Maintenance and Service Guide
D. Onsite Agent's Reference Set (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.14 Whatare benefits of Serial ATA (SATA) drives? Select TWO.
A. highest reliability
B. highest capacity
C. lowest price per GB
D. highest performance
E. medium to heavy read/write operations
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 DRAG DROP
Match the term with the definition.
Answer:

NO.16 Whatare features of HP Systems Insight Manager? Select FOUR.
A. device discovery
B. extended integration
C. fundamental integration
D. easy and rapid installation
E. secure remote management
F. web browser and command-line interface
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.17 Which processor currentlyuses64-bit x86-based architecture?
A. Itanium
B. Pentium IV
C. AMD Opteron
D. Pentium III Xeon
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are troubleshooting data corruption issues on two HP ProLiant servers connected to
the same MSA1500. You suspect it is because both servers are trying to mount and use
the same LUNS (logical units). In the MSA1500, whichfeature can you enable and use to
ensure each server gets only the storage intended for it?
A. Secure Path Manager (SPM)
B. Advanced Data Guarding (ADG)
C. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA )
Answer: C

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NO.19 Wherecan youfind the latest ProLiant Support Pack (PSP)? Select TWO.
A. the latest SmartStart CD
B. the latest Firmware Maintenance CD
C. from www.hp.com drivers and updates
D. the latest HP ProLiant Systems Management CD
Answer: A, C

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NO.20 Whichstatementdescribes the ProLiant BL series servers?
A. ultra-dense and power-efficient
B. offers maximum internal expansion
C. self-contained, ready-to-go clustering solution
D. density optimized for rack-mounting environments
Answer: A

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NO.21 WhichHP reference tool is available for each ProLiant product and includes information
on features, standard parts and options, models, service offerings, storage capacity,
component layout (high level), memory upgrade information, and specifications?
A. Quickspecs
B. Illustrated Parts Catalog
C. Setup and Installation Guide
D. ProLiant Servers Troubleshooting Guide
Answer: A

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NO.22 Why are blanking kits in an HP rack important?
A. to improve cooling
B. to improve rack stability
C. to improve appearances
D. to improve bottom-to-top airflow
Answer: D

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NO.23 You install a second processor in your DL380G4 but then the system does not power on
self test (POST) as expected. What is the first thing you should do?
A. Boot to the RBSU and run the server diagnostics to determine the issue.
B. Remove the second processor and upgrade the system ROM to the latest version.
C. Create a ROM diskette from ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU) and flash the system
ROM.
D. Put the new processor into the primary socket and flash the system ROM to the latest
version.
Answer: D

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NO.24 What advantage does Direct Attached Storage (DAS) have over a Storage Area Network
(SAN)?
A. easy deployment
B. sufficient use of resources
C. server based management model
D. easily shared resources across multiple servers
Answer: A

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NO.25 Our customer reports that theHPuninterruptiblepower supply (UPS) repeatedly makes a
clicking sound. What is happening?
A. The clicking sound is a warning that the batteries are about to fail.
B. The batteries in the UPS have failed and are disconnecting themselves.
C. The UPS is regulating the power through the 'buck/double boost' feature.
D. The batteries have entered the 'intelligent charging' state and the sound will stop once
the batteries have rapid charged to 90%.
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which HP utilityis usedto set cache read/write ratios for tuning performance?
A. Array Diagnostics Utility
B. Array Configuration Utility
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which iLO capabilities are enabled with the iLO Advanced Pack? Select THREE.
A. Virtual Media
B. Virtual Power
C. Active Directory Integration
D. iLO Online Firmware Update
E. Terminal Services Pass-through
F. Virtual Graphical Remote Console
G. HP Systems Insight Manager Integration
Answer: A, B, F

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NO.28 Which Remote Management offering allows graphic and text virtual console?
A. iLO 2
B. RILOE II
C. iLO Advanced
D. Lights-Out 100
Answer: B

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NO.29 In direct attached mode, what is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to
the MSA500?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: C

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NO.30 Whatare special requirements for Online Spare Memory? Select TWO.
A. The second populated bank is used as the spare memory bank.
B. Online spare memory must be configured in the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
C. The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other
banks.
D. When online spare memory is present, the spare memory bank is counted during the
power-on self-test (POST) and is added to the system memory count reported to the
operating system.
Answer: B, C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J34
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 289 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the MSA Storage Management Utility?
A. It is only located on the master MSA controller module.
B. It resides on any server connected to the SAN.
C. It resides on the SAN management server.
D. It is located on either of the MSA controller modules.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Several different methods are used to protect data. One method uses snapshots. What is an accurate
description of a snapshot?
A. source independent physical image of a volume
B. logical copy of a volume on another controller
C. remote copy of a volume on another storage array
D. source dependent logical image of a volume
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which data protection capabilities does the MSA2012i array provide? (Select two.)
A. up to 255 snapshots
B. up to 255 volume copies
C. 128 volume copies
D. 128 snapshots
E. 64 volume copies
F. 64 snapshots
Answer: CF

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NO.4 Which MSA model allows you to connect to up to 64 hosts?
A. MSA2012sa
B. MSA2000i
C. MSA2000fc
D. MSA2000sa
Answer: C

HP   HP0-J34   HP0-J34   HP0-J34   HP0-J34

NO.5 What are valid hardware capabilities of the MSA2000? (Select two.)
A. snapshots on MSA2000fc only
B. data replication between arrays
C. clones on any MSA2000
D. SAS backend bus
E. tri-port SATA drives for high availability
Answer: CD

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NO.6 In addition to using the WBI or CLI, how can you set the date and time on an MSA2324fc G2 solution?
A. by issuing the set controller-ntp enabled command through CLI
B. b y issuing the set controller-time command through CLI
C. automatically as soon as the first host is connected
D. b y configuring the system to use Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has an MSA2324fc with dual controllers. What is required when adding an MSA70 drive
enclosure to this configuration?
A. dual I/O modules on MSA controllers
B. a dual domain I/O module option
C. two additional miniSAS to miniSAS cables
D. a minimum of 16 dual-ported SAS drives
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which key benefits does the MSA2012fc provide? (Select two.)
A. clone and snapshot capability
B. ability to mix disk drives of different sizes in a virtual RAID set without capacity loss
C. flexible drive types and sizes
D. controller-based replication capability
E. support for dual-ported SATA disk drives
Answer: AC

HP   HP0-J34   HP0-J34   HP0-J34   HP0-J34 examen

NO.9 The HP StorageWorks MSA2000 Family Storage Management Utility is used to manage which
components?
A. drive modules and virtual disks
B. disk groups and virtual disks
C. master volumes and replication groups
D. pre-fetch cache and disks
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which array-head chassis for the MSA2000fc G2 has 24 drive bays?
A. large form factor chassis
B. medium form factor chassis
C. s mall form factor chassis
D. high density form factor chassis
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: BH0-010
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

ISEB examen   BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.3 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

ISEB   certification BH0-010   certification BH0-010   BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.5 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

ISEB   BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.7 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

ISEB   BH0-010   BH0-010 examen

NO.10 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

ISEB examen   BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.11 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

ISEB examen   certification BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.14 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

certification ISEB   BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.15 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

ISEB   certification BH0-010   BH0-010 examen   certification BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.16 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

ISEB   BH0-010 examen   BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.17 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

ISEB examen   certification BH0-010   certification BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.18 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

ISEB   BH0-010   certification BH0-010   BH0-010   BH0-010

NO.19 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.20 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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