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Code d'Examen: TK0-201
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer))
Questions et réponses: 247 Q&As

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NO.1 An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the
skill the instructor is demonstrating?
A. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B. Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C. Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An instructor uses multiple forms of media to help the class understand a difficult topic. Unfortunately
learners are still having a hard time with the concept. Noticing difficulty, the instructor creates another
learning tool to explain the topic another way. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the
instructor is using?
A. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion
B. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training
C. Adapt learning methods as intended by the course designers
D. Enhance, substitute or create media as appropriate
Answer: D

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NO.3 An instructor is leading a virtual class when several learners start having significant bandwidth issues
that cause them to drop out of the live session. Which of the following represents the BEST solution to the
problem?
A. Inform the learners that most of the same material will be covered in the next class session.
B. Have the learners watch a recorded session of the class.
C. Request that those learners with bandwidth issues be moved to an in-person live class,
D. Cancel the current session and schedule a make-up class.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware
material used during a class?
A. Design of the courseware materials
B. Accuracy of the courseware
C. Cost of the courseware
D. Instructor's use of the courseware
Answer: B

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NO.5 After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations
of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?
A. It measures the application of the skills taught.
B. It validates the quality of the course material.
C. It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D. It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.
Answer: A

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NO.6 During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the
instructor do FIRST?
A. Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B. Move the class to another room.
C. Take a class break and find another projector.
D. Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A. In a cluster with other, similar skills
B. Just in time for the learner to apply it
C. As part of a summary of related skills
D. As part of a review session prior to an examination
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements BEST describes the value of using a variety of question types during
instruction?
A. Regularly asking questions during a course helps to identify those that are paying attention.
B. Effective use of questions will enhance learners' conceptual understanding; encourage deep thinking
and meaningful participation.
C. Using a variety of questions during instruction prevents anyone in the group from becoming
disinterested with the same question types.
D. Questions asked often during a course will keep learners engaged, it is not important if they do not
know the correct answer.
Answer: B

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NO.9 An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems
that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not
work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor.?
A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements
B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.
C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems
D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.
Answer: D

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NO.10 An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather.
The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.
B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day
C. Have the learners introduce themselves.
D. Proceed with the course material.
Answer: A

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NO.11 An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the
following is the BEST way to achieve this?
A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.
B. Have the learners role play the topic.
C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.
D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?
A. Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B. Measurable results from summative assessments
C. Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D. Comparing learner performance with other learners
Answer: C

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NO.13 At the beginning of a training session, a trainer instructed the learners to use Brand X computers
because the instructional design assumes Brand X computers. Many learners objected. They felt that
since they will be using Brand Y computers at work, they should work on Brand Y computers in the room.
If the instructor needs to use Brand X computers to instruct, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate way to respond to the learners' need to be able to apply course materials to job
requirements?
A. First explain to the class how the materials apply to Brand X. and then do the same for Brand Y.
B. Do not mention either brand by name, but refer learners to the manual covering each of the respective
brands.
C. Provide a guide that relates Brand X to Brand Y computer functions
D. After providing the planned instruction on the Brand X computers, discuss differences that Brand Y
computers present to the user.
Answer: D

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NO.14 While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following
BEST describes the benefits?
A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.
B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning
objectives
C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.
D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A contract instructor has been hired to teach a course with twelve learners. After surveying the learners
it is identified that half of the class is not familiar with the subject being taught. Which of the following
should the instructor do to help the entire class achieve success?
A. Contact the training manager for suggestions on how to proceed.
B. Teach to the more experienced learners; the others will catch up.
C. Make the six learners that already know the material wait until the other learners catch up
D. Cancel the class and then divide the class into two difference courses.
Answer: A

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NO.16 An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning
style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?
A. Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B. Administer an exam to verify learner's knowledge of the material.
C. Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D. Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.
Answer: D

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NO.17 The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning
stops working. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Report the incident to the maintenance department
B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course
C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.
D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.
Answer: A

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NO.18 An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the
question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.
B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.
C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.
D. Reprimand the learner for their response.
Answer: A

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NO.19 An instructor has a class of learners who are required to attend. Most of the learners are not paying
attention or participating. Which of the following will increase the level of learner motivation?
A. Explain to the learners that the material is really interesting and they might want to pay attention.
B. Ask the learners if there is something more relevant they would prefer to learn.
C. Explain to the learners the skills they learn by taking this class could lead to career benefits.
D. Explain to the learners that they are only in class for a few days, and to make the best of it.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has
asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting. Which
of the following should the instructor do?
A. Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B. Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C. Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D. Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: PD0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 861 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

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NO.2 Scheduled preventative maintenance visits should be carried out:
A.after two unplanned service calls.
B.according to manufacturers specifications.
C.when the device is becoming unreliable.
D.every sixty days.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.4 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.5 Which of the following is the FIRST step a technician should take when troubleshooting a device
issue?
A.Gather information from the customer.
B.Isolate the problem on the device.
C.Read the service documentation for possible causes.
D.Check the parts life counters.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.9 When arriving at the customers location, two different users describe the problem, and from their
description it seems to be two separate problems. Which of the following is an appropriate step to take?
A.Ignore both of them and decide what the real problem is.
B.Set up a separate call for each problem.
C.Have them duplicate the problem at the device.
D.Ask a third person and see if the problem is the same thing.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.11 When onsite repairing a printer the technicians cell phone rings and it is a personal call, how should
the technician handle this?
A.Answer the call and talk to your friend at the customer site.
B.Answer the call and tell the friend you will call them later.
C.Let it go to voicemail, call them back between service calls.
D.Let it ring and call the friend back when the customer leaves.
Answer: C

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NO.12 How should a service representative provide closure at the end of a call for a client?
A.Explain the issues of the call, the steps taken to resolve them and query the client if they have any
additional needs.
B.Explain the solution to the issue and then provide the client with the technicians contact information in
case they have any questions.
C.Give the client a technical explanation on the issue and how it was fixed; throw any faulty equipment in
the clients garbage.
D.Proceed to the next service call, check back with the client in a week to see if they have any additional
needs.
Answer: A

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NO.13 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following failed components would be responsible for the fuser unit not heating properly?
A.Halogen lamps
B.Ball bearing
C.Hot roller
D.Pressure roller
Answer: A

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NO.15 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.16 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.17 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.18 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following type of lamp is used for heating a fuser?
A.Xenon
B.Halogen
C.Incandescent
D.Light Emitting Diode
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following items can be used as a discharge lamp?
A.Halogen lamp
B.Light Emitting Diodes (LED)
C.Fuser lamp
D.Cleaning roller
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following types of media would MOST likely cause above normal amounts of machine
jamming?
A.Envelopes
B.Colored media
C.Letterhead
D.Pre punched
Answer: A

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NO.22 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following devices can route electrical signals only when activated by an external control
signal?
A.Solenoid
B.Relay
C.Clutch
D.Capacitor
Answer: B

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NO.25 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

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NO.26 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.28 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.30 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 000-176
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Worklight V5.0.0.3 Mobile Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

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NO.1 The following changes are made to a Worklight mobile application: 1.Web resources of version
1 (v1) are updated and deployed to the Worklight Server. 2.A new version 2 (v2) is deployed with its
updateSilently property set to true. What will be the direct update user experience on a device
running v1 of the application when the user chooses to receive update?
A. v1 is uninstalled first followed by a silent installation of v2.
B. v1 web resources are updated first followed by a silent installation of v2.
C. v1 web resources are reloaded after the update and the application remains on v1.
D. The user is prompted to choose between updating v1 or installing v2 in the background.
Answer: C

IBM   000-176   certification 000-176   000-176

NO.2 A developer has deployed a Worklight mobile application to a remote Worklight Server
environment using a context root of app1 and wants to update one of the application's server-side
components. Which Worklight console should the developer use to re-deploy the component?
A. The Worklight console on the remote server accessed through the URL:
http://remoteServerHostName:portNumber/console.
B. The Worklight console in the local development environment accessed through the URL:
http://localHostName:portNumber/console.
C. The application-specific Worklight console on the remote server accessed through the
URL:http://remoteServerHostName:portNumber/app1 /console.
D. The application-specific Worklight console in the local development environment accessed
through the URL:http://localHostName:portNumber/app1 /console.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-176   000-176   000-176

NO.3 A banking company has deployed the Application Center for internal use. Before users can see
the mobile client application in the list of available applications, which property of the mobile client
application must be set to true?
A. Label
B. Package
C. Installer
D. Recommended
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the server-side configuration requirements to enable collection of analytics data for
reporting?
A. Configuration of parameters in the worklight.properties file to enable raw data collection and
database connectivity.
B. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-server.xml file to enable raw data collection and
database connectivity.
C. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-reports.properties file to enable raw data collection
and JNDI database connectivityparameters in the resources.xml file.
D. Configuration of parameters in the worklight-server.properties file to enable raw data collection
and JDBC database connectivityparameters in the resources.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A developer has prepared a Worklight mobile application for deployment to a production
Worklight Server environment and generated the .war, .wlapp and .adapter files for it. How should
the developer deploy the application files to the production Worklight Server environment?
A. Use the Worklight console to deploy the .war, .wlapp and .adapter files.
B. Use the production application server's deployment tools to deploy the .war, .wlapp and .adapter
files.
C. Use the production application server's deployment tools to deploy the .war file, and the
Worklight console to deploy the .wlapp and.adapter files.
D. Use the production application server's deployment tools to deploy the .war and .adapter files,
and the Worklight console to deploy the.wlapp file.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company discovers a bug in one of the HTML pages of a Worklight hybrid mobile application
that it has recently published to the Android Google Play store. It has fixed the bug and re-deployed
the application to the production Worklight Server without changing its version number. Which
additional administrative step, if any, must be performed for the update to take effect the next time
a user accesses the application on a device?
A. No additional administrative steps are required.
B. Re-publish the application to the Android Google Play store.
C. Change the application status to Updated in the Worklight Console.
D. Change the application status to Updated in the Worklight Console and re-publish the application
to the Android Google Play store.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CUR-051
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM i2 Analyst Exam)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 An intelligence analyst has just created a new custom attribute. However, when the analyst
inputs the data, only the Attribute Symbol is displayed on the chart and not the data entered. Which
of the following actions would allow the data to be displayed?
A. Change the attribute type to "Number".
B. Select "Show All" under the View tool bar.
C. Check the "Value" box under the attribute class properties.
D. Check the "Show on Chart" box under the attribute class properties.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a built-in dissemination tool?
A. Export to PDF
B. Save as spreadsheet
C. Send (as email attachment)
D. Save complete chart as picture
Answer: B

IBM examen   CUR-051   CUR-051   CUR-051

NO.3 An analyst is creating a chart to show the order in which telephone calls took place. The
analyst adds the date and time of the call to the link, but cannot make the link controlling. Why is
that option NOT available?
A. Links can never be made controlling.
B. The duration of the call is also required.
C. Links can only be made controlling between Theme Lines.
D. Links can only be made controlling between Event Frames.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An intelligence analyst is working on a case and needs to present a chart with a set of phone
calls between two suspects. Which of the following would allow the analyst to automatically align
the links to the Time Bar, in the correct chronological sequence?
A. Enter the Date and Time, and set to Ordered.
B. Enter the Date and Time, and set to Controlling.
C. Enter a Description of Date and Time, and set to Ordered.
D. Enter a Description of Date and Time, and set to Controlling.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following graphic types CANNOT be used to add a photo to an entity?
A. Portable Bitmap Format (.pbm)
B. Portable Network Graphics (.png)
C. File Interchange Format (.jpg, .jpeg)
D. Device Independent Bitmaps (.bmp, .dib)
Answer: A

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NO.6 An intelligence analyst has been given an association chart with telephones and telephone call
links. The analyst would like to see the calls placed in time and date order, so the analyst decides to
change the chart into a timeline. How can the analyst change the telephone entities on the chart?
A. Change the Entity Type to Theme Line
B. Change the Entity Type to Event Frame
C. Change the Entity Representation to Theme Line
D. Change the Entity Representation to Event Frame
Answer: C

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NO.7 Frames can be used to draw attention to key entities. Which of the following is NOT a reason
to use frames in a chart?
A. To distinguish groups of entities.
B. To map entities to Google Earth.
C. To indicate entities with shared attributes as a result of applying Conditional Formatting.
D. To change the appearance of entities selected using analysis tools such as filtering or Social
Network Analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A researcher wants to move a Legend to another area on a chart. How can the Legend be
moved to the new area?
A. Right-click and drag.
B. Hold the Ctrl key and drag.
C. Change the Legend Properties to "Free".
D. Click the Edit button within Legend Items.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2140-649
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rarional Software Architect)
Questions et réponses: 51 Q&As

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NO.1 Which support does RSA provide for RAS artifacts? (Choose three.)
A. imports RAS artifacts
B. browses RAS repositories
C. converts RAS assets into zip files
D. creates and packages RAS artifacts
Answer: ABD

IBM   C2140-649   C2140-649

NO.2 Which statement is true about Deployment Models?
A. Deployment Models are not supported in Rational Software Architect.
B. The Enterprise IT Design Model template includes a Deployment Model.
C. Deployment diagrams can be added to model templates to form Deployment Models.
D. The Deployment Model template and Analysis Model template both contain Deployment
Models.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true about Browse diagrams?
A. Browse diagrams are saved as .brx files.
B. You can change the layout of a Browse diagram.
C. Browse diagrams show all the elements of a given package.
D. Browse diagrams are driven by parameters and filters that you control.
Answer: D

IBM   C2140-649   C2140-649 examen   C2140-649

NO.4 In RSA, which type of combined fragment is used in sequence diagrams to show the
details of how one
object messages another?
A. optional fragment
B. messaging fragment
C. interaction use fragment
D. nested sequence fragment
Answer: C

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NO.5 To facilitate modeling, reusable assets can be used to share _____. (Choose four.)
A. profiles
B. models
C. patterns
D. transformations
E. JAVA test scripts
Answer: ABCD

IBM   certification C2140-649   C2140-649   C2140-649 examen   certification C2140-649

NO.6 How do you add RSA model report templates?
A. update your RSA install via the Rational Product Updater
B. create a new RSA plug-in that extends the reporting capabilities
C. add a new report template to the project that contains the model
D. create a new report template and add its corresponding report format entry in the
reports.manifest file
in the reporting plug-in
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is true about models and UML projects?
A. A UML project can only contain a single model.
B. Each UML project must contain a blank model.
C. A UML project can contain any number of models.
D. Models can only be added when the UML project is created.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Topic diagrams are defined based on _____.
A. design patterns
B. model templates
C. architectural discovery
D. a key model element and its relationships
Answer: D

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NO.9 When should you consider partitioning a model into multiple files? (Choose two.)
A. when the model file becomes larger that 1 MB
B. when there are more than 10 packages in a model
C. when there are relationships to elements in more than one reference model
D. when the size or packaging structure of the model becomes unmanageable
Answer: AD

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NO.10 What indicates the level at which a model can be partitioned?
A. Class
B. Method
C. Diagram
D. Package
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2140-839
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Unified Process v7.0)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a typical breakdown of total project effort across the phases?
A.Inception 20% Elaboration 50% Construction 20% Transition 10%
B.Inception 5%, Elaboration 20%, Construction 45%, Transition 30%
C.Inception 10% Elaboration 10% Construction 70% Transition 10%
D.Inception 5% Elaboration 20% Construction 65% Transition 10%
Correct:D

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NO.2 In RUP, what does the Software Development Plan contain?
A.Iteration Plan
B.Requirements Management Plan, Master Validation Plan, Quality Test Plan, and Risk
Management
Plan
C.Problem Resolution Plan, Product Acceptance Plan, Measurement Plan, Risk
Management Plan, and
Quality Assurance Plan
D.Requirements Management Plan, Product Metrics Plan, and Software Test Assurance
Plan
Correct:C

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NO.3 What are two functions of a Status Assessment? (Choose two.)
A.manages expectations
B.provides a mechanism for resolving management issues
C.rates the overall project quality
D.resolves risk items
Correct:A B

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NO.4 Which two factors determine the duration of an iteration? (Choose two.)
A.the size of the project
B.the priority set by the customer on particular features
C.the requirement for a minimum of six iterations in a project
D.the level of automation used to manage code, distribute information and perform testing
Correct:A D

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NO.5 In planning for iterative development, the Project Plan is referred to as a _____.
A.roadmap
B.fine-grained plan
C.detailed plan
D.risk management tool
Correct:A

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.6 Which two statements are true about iterations? (Choose two.)
A.Working software is always delivered to the customer.
B.An iterations always has a plan and evaluation criteria.
C.An iteration is a mini project with a plan, deliverables and assessment.
D.There are always multiple iterations in each phase.
Correct:B C

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.7 In the Construction phase, what are the two areas of focus of the Iteration Plan?
(Choose two.)
A.development efficiency
B.project scoping
C.architectural risks
D.product quality
Correct:A D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.8 Which three work products belong in the Project Management discipline? (Choose
three.)
A.Risk Management Plan
B.Business Case
C.Test Evaluation Summary Report
D.Project Plan
Correct:A B D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.9 Which two concepts guide iterative development? (Choose two.)
A.early completion of simple features, to show progress to the customer
B.informal plans, allowing features to be moved to future iterations
C.early baselining of architecture, allowing stability in planning, content and organization
D.scope validation by stakeholders, to account for their needs
Correct:C D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.10 What are three types of work products? (Choose three.)
A.artifact
B.deliverable
C.milestone
D.outcome
Correct:A B D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.11 Why does the risk-time profile decline more rapidly for iterative development than
waterfall
development? (Choose two.)
A.Iterative development exposes design flaws and enables resolution earlier in the lifecycle.
B.With iterative development, customer satisfaction is maintained by early, incremental
deliveries of
capability.
C.In iterative development, the software architecture can be revised in any iteration to
support new
features and overcome performance problems.
D.Iterative development allows key, non-functional requirements (i.e. performance, fault
tolerance and
maintainability) to be addressed early in development.
Correct:A D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.12 What are three characteristics of a task? (Choose three.)
A.is work a role performs
B.occurs once in an iteration
C.has granularity of a few hours to a few days
D.usually affects only one or a small number of work products
Correct:A C D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.13 Which is a fine-grained plan?
A.Software Development Plan
B.Business Case
C.Iteration Plan
D.Risk Management Plan
Correct:C

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.14 What is the purpose of the Project Plan?
A.to assess the feasibility of the project
B.to establish project staffing
C.to describe the phases and major milestones of the project
D.to provide a sound rationale for project funding
Correct:C

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.15 How does an iterative approach help with resource and cost control?
A.It allows the Project Manager to control allocation of resources by phase. Artifacts evolve
as required by
each phase and there is increased precision of cost estimates from phase to phase.
B.It allows the Project Manager to make budgetary requests with each iteration. These
requests are
based on the expansion of project scope as requested by the customer.
C.It allows iterations to be planned in advance and in detail for all phases. It helps establish
costs and a
profile of resource usage can be generated in advance for the entire project.
D.It allows iterations to be de-scoped as required, at the direction of the Project Manager. It
allows better
management of costs as features can be moved to later iterations when resources are
available.
Correct:A

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.16 Which two model elements can be linked to descriptors? (Choose two.)
A.Phase
B.Task
C.Activity
D.Role
Correct:B D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.17 Which is part of the evaluation criteria for successful completion of the Elaboration
phase?
A.A final set of requirements is agreed upon.
B.All detailed design documents are reviewed.
C.The architecture is stable.
D.Less than 50% of project budget is expended.
Correct:C

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.18 What relationship(s) can a work product have to a task?
A.input only
B.output only
C.input and output
D.optional input, mandatory input, and output
Correct:D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.19 The Iteration Plan belongs to _____.
A.the Project Management domain and the Specification work product kind
B.the Assessment domain and the Project Management work product kind
C.the Planning domain and the Project Management work product kind
D.the Project Management domain and the Plan work product kind
Correct:D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

NO.20 Which two statements are true about an Executable Architecture? (Choose two.)
A.It is a disposable prototype of the application.
B.It is a simulation of the executing system.
C.It is a validation (testable) of the architecture.
D.It is the baseline for the rest of development.
Correct:C D

IBM examen   C2140-839   certification C2140-839   C2140-839   C2140-839

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