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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-052
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

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NO.4 Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1. Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B

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NO.5 These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1. Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.6 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.8 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-052 examen   1Z0-052
6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.9 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A

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NO.12 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-052   certification 1Z0-052   1Z0-052

NO.13 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

NO.14 Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1. Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.17 While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D

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NO.19 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

Oracle   1Z0-052   1Z0-052   1Z0-052

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-024
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Performance Tuning)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 For which reason would you query V$SYSSTAT?
A. Name of the sort segment.
B. Free space available for a sort segment.
C. Number of disk sorts performed since startup.
D. Number of users active on individual sort segments.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When performing a sort operation, you notice that there are a large number of sorts
requiring I/O to the disk. Which parameter could be increased to allow more sorts to be
performed in memory?
A. SORT_AREA_SIZE
B. LARGE_POOL_SIZE
C. SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE
D. SORT_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.3 In which two ways can you reduce the amount of sorting that is performed? (Choose two)
A. By using UNIONinstead of UNION ALL.
B. By using NOSORT when creating tables.
C. By using NOSORT when creating indexes.
D. By using COMPUTE instead of ESTIMATE when analysing objects.
E. By reducing the number of users that have the sort privilege.
F. By creating appropriate indexes on tables that are joined often.
Answer: C, F

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NO.4 What is the least number of buffers an LRU latch must cover in the database buffer cache?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 30
D. 50
E. 100
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three statements about improving the performance of the database buffer cache by
creating multiple buffer pools are true? (Choose three)
A. One, two, or three pools may be defined.
B. There are at least 50 blocks per LRU latch for
each pool.
C. Each buffer pool is assigned latches taken from DB_BLOCK_LRU_LATCHES.
D. The size of the DEFAULT pool is obtained by adding all the pools to the value of the
DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS parameter.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.6 If a willing-to-wait latch request is satisfied on the first attempt, which statistic gets
incremented?
A. GETS
B. SLEEPS
C. MISSES
D. IMMEDIATE_GETS
E. IMMEDIATE_ MISSES
F. IMMEDIATE_GETS
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which three types of statistics are reported in report.txt after running UTLESTAT SQL?
(Choose three)
A. Locking statistics.
B. Memory usage statistics.
C. Explain plan statistics.
D. Library cache statistics.
E. Buffer busy wait statistics.
F. Rollback contention statistics.
Answer: D, E, F

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NO.8 Which dynamic view is most useful for determining the current number of blocks allocated
to a buffer pool?
A. V$CACHE
B. V$SESS_IO
C. V$SYSSTAT
D. V$BUFFER_POOL
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement could require a sort?
A. SELECT DISTINCT dept_ID FROM emp;
B. UPDATE emp SET salary=salary*1.1 WHERE id 7722;
C. SELECT emp_id, nameFROM emp WHERE emp-id = 7722;
D. SELECT emp_id, nameFROM emp WHERE emp-id = BETWEEN 7722 and 7100 ;
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which tablespace is used as the temporary tablespace if 'TEMPORARY TABLESPACE' is
not specified for a user?
A. TEMP
B. DATA
C. SYSTEM
D. ROLL-BACK
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-024   1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.11 Which type of transaction should you assign to a specific large rollback segment?
A. Batch jobs that modify many rows.
B. Long running serializable transactions.
C. Long running reports, to avoid 'snapshot too old' errors.
D. Discrete transactions that modify many rows in the same block.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.12 Which two statements about plan stability and stored outlines are true? (Choose two)
A. You can group outlines in categories.
B. You can only have one stored outline per SQL statement.
C. Plan stability works only when SQL statements match.
D. Stored outlines are saved in the data dictionary (SYS schema)
E. Stored outlines become invalid when you analyze the associated objects.
Answer: A, C

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NO.13 Which two views can be sued to detect lock contention? (Choose two)
A. V$LOCK
B. V$LOCKED_OBJECT
C. V$LOCK_CONTENTION
Answer: A, B

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-024   1Z0-024   1Z0-024   1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.14 What does this statement do?
SQL>ANALYZE INDEX index_name VALIDITY STRUCTURE;
A. It places information into the INDEX_STATS view and allows for the monitoring of space
used by an index.
B. It provides information in the INDEX_HISTOGRAM view to indicate whether an index is
invalid or valid.
C. It provides information in the DBA_INDEXES view for the COST BASED Optimizer when
choosing an execution plan.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which action could potentially cause checkpoints to take longer?
A. Increasing the number of redo log groups.
B. Increasing the size of rollback segments.
C. Decreasing the value of the REDO_LOG_BUFFERS parameter.
D. Increasing the value of the FATS_START_IO_TARGET parameter.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-024 examen   1Z0-024   1Z0-024 examen

NO.16 Which three statements about rebuilding indexes are true? (Choose three)
A. The ALTER INDEX REBUILD command is used to change the storage characteristics of an
index.
B. Using the ALTER INDEX REBUILD is usually faster than dropping and recreating an index
because it uses the fast full scan feature.
C. Oracle8i allows for the creation of an index or re-creation of an existing index while allowing
concurrent operations on the base table.
D. When building an index, the NOLOGGING and UNRECOVERABLE keywords can be used
concurrently to reduce the time it takes to rebuild.
Answer: A, B, C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-024   1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.17 When a deadlock shutdown is detected by Oracle, where is the trace file generated?
A. SQL_TRACE
B. TRACE_DEST
C. USER_DUMP_DEST
D. CORE_DUMP_DEST
E. BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-024   certification 1Z0-024

NO.18 What will this statement do?
CREATE TABLESPACE temp
DATAFILE 'C:\database\temp.dbf' SIZE 10n
Temporary;
A. Create a tablespace that will be dropped on instance shutdown.
B. Create a tablespace in which the user can create segments for usage during sorts.
C. Create a tablespace in which oracle can create segments for usage during sorts.
D. Create a tablespace in which a user can create tables that will be automatically dropped after a
week
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-024 examen   certification 1Z0-024

NO.19 What are two main OLTP requirements? (Choose two)
A. Use bind variables rather than literals in your SQL code.
B. Analyze your tables regularly to refresh optimizer statistics.
C. Create multiple small rollback segments as opposed to a few big ones.
D. Create indexes on all columns that are regularly used in query predicates.
E. Set up appropriate default storage parameter values for dynamic (implicit) space allocation.
Answer: B, C,

certification Oracle   1Z0-024   certification 1Z0-024   1Z0-024

NO.20 The database includes tables with static data, which are used for queries only. To which
size should you set PCTFREE for this type of table?
A. 0
B. 50
C. 20
D. 10
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-225
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12: Inventory and Purchasing Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 During the requirements-gathering stage, your client states that it wants items purchased from a
supplier to be inspecteD. The client wants to know at what point the inventory is available to reservE.
When can reservations occur?
A. upon PO Line receipt
B. when the PO is approved
C. after the Inspection step is performed
D. after the Receipt Line Deliver transaction
E. reservations are not possible on inspection items
Answer: D

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NO.2 You want Oracle Inventory to automatically create move orders while performing min-max planninG. To
enable that functionality, you would need to define the ____.
A. subinventory supply source type at the pull level
B. Move Order Timeout Action to a value greater than zero
C. Move Order Timeout Period to a value greater than zero
D. subinventory supply source type at the subinventory or item level
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three statements are true about the Move Order process? (Choose threE. )
A. Requisition and pick release orders are preapproveD.
B. Replenishment and pick wave move orders are preapproveD.
C. Requisition and pick release orders are preapproved and require inspection.
D. If no planner is specified for the item, the requisition line is automatically approveD.
E. If no approvals are required in your organization, set the inventory organization parameters Timeout
Period to 0 and the Timeout Action to Approve Automatically.
Answer: BDE

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NO.4 Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.
Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?
(Choose two.)
A. UOM information
B. shipping information
C. on-hand information
D. ATP supply information
E. reservations information
Answer: BE

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NO.5 Which two are supply sources for Supplier and Production inventory replenishment? (Choose two.)
A. Discrete job
B. Intransit order
C. External sales order
D. Replenishment move order
E. Internal purchase requisition
F. External purchase requisition
Answer: AF

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NO.6 Your client wants the ability to perform the following tasks:
1.Allow requestors to self-approve purchasing requisitions if their approval levels are appropriatE.
2)Allow an approver to modify a purchasing requisition if necessary.
3)Allow requestors to forward their purchasing requisitions to different people if necessary.
4)Withdraw the ability to change the default "Forward From" on the purchasing requisition when
approving the samE.
5)Allow the purchasing requisition to follow the entire approval hierarchy until it reaches a person who can
approve the document regardless of authority.
6)Allow everyone to view each others' purchasing requisitions.
Which seven actions would satisfy the client's requirements? (Choose seven.)
A. Set the Access Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Full.
B. Set the Security Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to PubliC.
C. Set the Security Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to PrivatE.
D. Set the Forward Method for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Direct.
E. Select the Owner Can Approve box for the Purchasing Requisition Document TypE.
F. Set the Forward Method for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Hierarchy.
G. Deselect the Owner Can Approve box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
H. Select the Approver Can Modify check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
I. Deselect the Approver Can Modify check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
J. Select the Owner Can Forward-To check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
K. Deselect the Can Change the Forward-From box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
Answer: ABEFHJK

Oracle examen   1Z0-225   1Z0-225   1Z0-225

NO.7 What is the purpose of the profile options INV: CCEOI Commit Point and INV: CCEOI Workers?
A. to provide a baseline for generating cycle count tags
B. to set default values for the frequency of automatic cycle count requests
C. to set default values for the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent program
D. to limit the actions permitted when reviewing cycle counts imported from an external system using the
Cycle Count Entries Open Interface
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag is
checkeD.
An internal requisition has been created and approveD.
What type of receipt would Org B have to perform to receive the goods?
A. RMA receipt
B. Inter-Org Transfer
C. Account Alias receipt
D. Purchase Order receipt
E. Receipt by Shipment Number
Answer: E

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NO.9 What is true about (alpha) in the Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method?
A. (alpha) equals the old forecast.
B. (alpha) is always greater than onE.
C. (alpha) is calculated by Oracle Inventory.
D. (alpha) is multiplied by the forecast error to determine the adjustment.
E. (alpha) equals the old forecast plus a portion of the forecast error from the previous perioD.
Answer: D

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NO.10 ACME is implementing Inventory in a Process Manufacturing environment. The default profile for the
Min-Max Planning Report is deployeD.
What will be the result?
A. Requisitions will be preapproveD.
B. Users must approve requisitions for items that have a limited shelf lifE.
C. Users must approve requisitions for items with a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
D. Users must approve requisitions that are inside the items Past Due Supply time fencE.
E. Users must approve requisitions when the quantity exceeds the item's Economic Order Quantity
(EOQ).
Answer: A

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NO.11 Identify four mandatory implementation actions for approved supplier lists and sourcing rules.
(Choose four.)
A. Register suppliers.
B. Define buyer security.
C. Set the enterprise namE.
D. Define system profile options.
E. Assign Sourcing responsibilities.
F. Define purchasing Document Styles.
G. Set up attribute groups and requirements sections.
Answer: ACDE

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NO.12 Which three statements regarding inventory forecasting are true? (Choose threE. )
A. Focus forecasting can only be generated from historical datA.
B. Focus forecasting is typically used to produce single period forecasts.
C. Statistical forecasting can be generated from either historical data or master schedule entries.
D. Statistical forecasting enables you to apply exponentially weighted trend and seasonality factors to
predict demanD.
E. Statistical forecasting enables you to simulate various methods of calculating demand so that you can
select the best forecasting model.
Answer: ABD

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NO.13 Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose threE. )
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash
account are separatE.
E. You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on
the balance sheet.
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 The client wants to implement reorder point planning for some items in the organization. They
currently use min-max planninG. What is the minimum amount of information that needs to be changed
on the items the client wants to plan?
A. Safety Stock Quantity and Forecast
B. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost
C. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, and Order Cost
D. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, Order Cost, and Maximum Order Quantity
E. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, Order Cost, and Minimum Order Quantity
Answer: C

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NO.15 You and your client determined that forecasting methods included with inventory will be sufficient to
meet the client's needs.
You and the customer have decided to use Focus Forecasting to begin with and move to Exponential
Smoothing after one year.
Along the way, your customer noticed some definite trends in demand and has requested your help to
re-evaluate the forecasting methoD.
What do you recommend as a forecasting method? What additional information is needed, if any?
A. Focus Forecasting
B. Exponential Smoothing
C. Exponential Smoothing with Trend Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
D. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
E. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Gamma Coefficients
Answer: C

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NO.16 While implementing a procurement solution for BAC Corp., you noted the following business
requirements:
a) Do not require purchase order approval if the unit price is increased or decreased by less than 15
percent.
b) Add comments in the Approve Purchase Order Reminder notification.
c) Change the number of days for the Approve Requisition Reminder notification.
Which two workflows need to be modified to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. PO Change Order Workflow
B. PO Requisition Approval Workflow
C. Purchase Order Approval Workflow
D. Create Purchase Order or Releases Workflow
E. PO Send Notifications for Purchasing Documents Workflow
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Select three statements that are true about the receiving process. (Choose threE. )
A. You can correct receiving transaction errors.
B. You can record returns to suppliers and customers.
C. You can record receipt of unordered items, research receipt, and match the delivery to a purchase
order.
D. You can use express receipt to distribute a given quantity of an item from a single supplier across
multiple shipments and distributions.
E. You can define receiving tolerances and rules at the organization, supplier, item and order level, with
the highest level overriding the next levels (highest level being the organization).
Answer: ABC

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NO.18 Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the
item. The
buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods received from
nonlocal sources.
Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose threE. )
A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.
B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.
C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection RequireD.
D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.
E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local sourcE.
F. Create item transaction default for the item in the Item Master Organization.
G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.
H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the item in the Inventory Organization.
Answer: EGH

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NO.19 Your client wants to ensure that backflush operations can continue even if the inventory level is driven
below zero. At the same time, they want typical inventory transactions to be prevented from driving
inventory levels below zero.
Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= No.
B. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= Yes.
C. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= No.
D. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= Yes.
Answer: B

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NO.20 XYZ is a metal fabrication company. It wants to classify all metals and plastics into two major groups.
There are many subgroups in metals and plastics. All the subgroups are linked to their major group.
This group classification is extensively used in all the reports in the organization.
Which Oracle functionality can meet the above requirement?
A. Catalogs
B. Categories
C. Catalog and Categories
D. Category Set and Categories
E. Group key flexfield enabled in the reports
F. Group descriptive flexfield enabled in the reports
Answer: D

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NO.21 When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the
following message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration:
[number].
Where is this [number] set up in the system?
A. in the Quote Header - Warning Delay field
B. in the Systems Profile Options - PO: Quote Warning Delay
C. in Purchasing Options on the Default Tab - Quote Warning Delay field
D. Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) List of Values, in the Quote Header - Warning Delay field
Answer: C

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NO.22 ACME is implementing Inventory in a make-to-order manufacturing environment, where there is
on-hand inventory for 200 different motors.
For these purchasable items, given the proper profile setup, Min-max can automatically create _____.
A. an expense account
B. an encumbrance account
C. an invoice price variance account
D. an inventory Accounts Payable accrual account
E. records in the Purchase Order Requisition interface table
Answer: E

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NO.23 Identify the correct sequence of steps in the purchase order period close business flow.
A. 1. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 2. Process period-end accruals. > 3. Close the purchasing
perioD.
> 4. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 5. Run the
Accrual
Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 6. Write off accrued transactions as necessary. > 7. Create a manual
journal entry
for write-offs.
B. 1. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 2. Process period-end accruals. > 3. Close the purchasing
perioD.
> 4. Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 5. Write off accrued transactions as necessary. > 6.
Create a
manual journal entry for write-offs. > 7. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory
accounting perioD.
C. 1. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 2. Run the
Accrual
Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 3. Write-off accrued transactions as necessary. > 4. Create a manual
journal entry
for write-offs. > 5. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 6. Process period-end accruals. > 7. Close
the purchasing perioD.
D. 1. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 2. Review
the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 3. Process period-end accruals. > 4. Close the purchasing perioD. > 5.
Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 6. Write-off accrued transactions as necessary. > 7.
Create a manual journal entry for write-offs.
Answer: A

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NO.24 Min-max planning can be used _____.
A. only at the subinventory level
B. in place of MRP/MPS planning
C. in Exponential Smoothing Forecast calculations
D. in Economic Order Quantity(EOQ) calculations
E. in Material Requirement Planning/Master Production Schedule (MRP/MPS) calculations
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which are the three mandatory fields when defining a supplier bank header? (Choose threE. )
A. Bank
B. Bank branch
C. Bank contact
D. Bank account number
E. Bank operating account
Answer: ABD

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NO.26 ABC company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:
1. Purchase order receipt
2. Miscellaneous receipt
3. Account alias receipt
The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which
setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?
A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No
D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes
E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
Answer: C

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NO.27 You define a UOM Class for VolumE.
Which grouping represents the Volume class?
A. Liter, gallon, milliliter, pint
B. Kilometer, meter, mile, yard
C. Liter, milliliter, kilometer, meter
D. Liter, gallon, milliliter, centimeter
E. Kilometer, meter, cubic yard, cubic meter
F. Kilometer, meter, centimeter, cubic centimeter
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which data is received by Oracle Bill of Materials from Oracle Inventory?
A. ATP supply only
B. item information only
C. on-hand quantity only
D. item information and units of measure
E. units of measure and on-hand quantity
Answer: D

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NO.29 Your customer decided to use min-max planning for some items in specific subinventories. You
caution him not to include too many customer orders when he runs the report.
What option do you suggest that he include?
A. Supply Cutoff Date
B. Demand Cutoff Date
C. Supply and Demand Cutoff Dates
D. Material Requirement Planning (MRP)
E. Advanced Supply Chain Planning (ASCP)
Answer: B

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NO.30 An item has its Lot Control attribute set to Full Control.
The Active material status does not have any transaction types related to lot control enabled for material
status control. This status is assigned to all lot numbers associated with the item.
The subinventory where the item's lot numbers are all located also has the Active material status.
How will the application respond when a user tries to submit a subinventory transfer transaction?
A. The transaction will be accepteD.
B. An error message will be generateD.
C. The transaction will be accepted, but will be registered as a transfer to and from the same
subinventory.
D. The transaction will be accepted, but the item cost update will have to be processed separately by the
user.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: MSC-241
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in a
Capacity Plus configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in trunked mode and the other logical channel can work in
data revert mode.
B. Both logical channels can work in trunked mode.
C. Both logical channels can work in data revert mode.
D. Only A & B are true (C is false)
E. Only B & C are true (A is false)
F. A, B, & C are true
Answer: F

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NO.3 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

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NO.4 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. The dealer needs to make a simple change in repeater
two (2) and utilize IP repeater programming (IRP) to access the repeater remotely. A couple of
days later the customer calls and complains about users getting system busy tones (engaged
tones).
The dealer attempts to connect an RDAC remotely to the system with no success. He has verified
he can communicate to the router at the site.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The master has gone down and the system is operating on just two (2) repeaters.
C. There is RF interference on the channel and the master repeater is unable to communicate to
the peers.
D. The peers are using DHCP and are not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The system is operating on just the master.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are looking to optimize battery life of radios that are close to the base station. Which is
the
most likely parameter for optimizing the battery life of a radio for a Capacity Plus system?
A. Beacon interval
B. Beacon duration
C. High power mode in Radio
D. Low power mode in Radio
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A MOTOTRBO repeater is connected to a Zetron Model 35 Telephone Interconnect. If a
telephone
user dials the Telephone Interconnect number, they get a busy signal (engaged tone). If a radio
user dials any telephone number, they don’t hear the ringing tone, only silence. Upon visiting the
site, you find that when a radio user dials, the relay click can be heard from the Zetron Model 35.
Unplugging the RJ11 and dialing the Telephone Interconnect, still results in a busy signal
(engaged tone). With this information, what do you think could be wrong?
A. The Zetron Model 35 may be faulty.
B. The Zetron Model 35 has probably not been configured for the phone line Ringer Equivalence
Number (REN).
C. The RJ11 cable may have a short circuit or there is a short circuit somewhere between the site
and the exchange.
D. The repeater interface cable to the Zetron Model 35 is faulty.
Answer: C

certification Motorola Solutions   MSC-241   MSC-241

NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

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NO.9 What changes are required to the Master Repeater in an IP Site Connect system when a new
peer
is added to the system?
A. Both the IP address and port number of the new repeater must be configured into the Master
Repeater.
B. The address of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
C. The port of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
D. No changes are required to the Master Repeater.
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-241   MSC-241 examen   MSC-241

NO.10 Which of the following antennas is BEST suited for providing coverage inside a tall building?
A. 4 element Yagi
B. Radiating coaxial cable
C. End-fed half-wave antenna
D. High gain collinear antenna
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: STI-884
Nom d'Examen: Simens (SOCA Sales Small & Medium Businesses (SMB))
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 Which best describes the IT-based communications principle of Open Communications?
A. IT-based open Communications enables integration of mobile communications and location
independence across networks.
B. IT-based open Communications uses the latest technology to provide innovative business continuity
services to your customer.
C. IT-based open Communications can be implemented in various forms such as Managed and Hosted
Services.
D. IT-based open Communications means a strong commitment to SIP and LINUX, a clear focus on
IT-oriented deployments.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which best describes the OpenPath model?
A. How your customers can move their communications environment from where it is today to where they
need it to be.
B. How Siemens' solutions can affect the operating costs and sales of your customers.
C. How to decide which products fit your customers' profile.
D. How to maximize the lifetime values of solutions and services that you provide to your customers.
Answer: A

Simens   STI-884   certification STI-884

NO.3 Which best describes Siemens' most recent application specifically tailored to the needs of the small
and medium sized businesses.?
A. OpenScape
B. Unified Communciations
C. OpenScape Office
D. LifeWorks
Answer: C

Simens   STI-884   STI-884   certification STI-884

NO.4 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is a Value Chief?
A. The prospect has a PC network upgrade planned for implementing a new application.
B. The prospect is moving to a new, more cost-effective office space.
C. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
D. The prospect is interested in IP technology but is uneasy about a large initial investment.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which factor affects small and medium sized businesses' ability to make informed decisions about
technology?
A. Customer segmentation.
B. Lack of dedicated IT staff.
C. Unclear business strategy.
D. Lack of market knowledge.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which best represents Siemens' vision for the unification of the various types of communications in
enterprises?
A. LifeWorks
B. Open Communications
C. OpenPath
D. Unified Communications
Answer: A

certification Simens   STI-884   STI-884

NO.7 Which business objectives does the Siemens approach to Open Communications impact while
providing business value to customers? (Choose two)
A. Promoting employee competition.
B. Reducing operation costs.
C. Improving asset efficiency.
D. Enhancing business knowledge.
Answer: B,C

Simens   STI-884 examen   certification STI-884

NO.8 Which best describes Siemens' model for migration to Unified Communications?
A. OpenPath
B. LifeWorks
C. Open Service Delivery
D. HiPath 3000
Answer: A

certification Simens   STI-884   certification STI-884

NO.9 What makes the Siemens Unified Communications solutions unique in the marketplace?
A. They are proven and mature offerings that operate with your customer's existing IT environment and
provide easy growth and expansion.
B. They leverage existing applications such as Microsoft Outlook.
C. They offer cost savings and productivity enhancing benefits.
D. They enable employees to remain connected when they are out of office.
Answer: A

Simens   STI-884   STI-884   STI-884 examen   STI-884

NO.10 Why is it critical for customers to have a cost-effective solution that meets the basic needs of small and
medium sized businesses?
A. They want something that works with their existing infrastructure, which is easy to set up and manage.
They typically don t have the money to experiment on new technologies.
B. They need support to help make communications services easier to understand and to promote
internally.
C. A little more than half of small businesses now run a local area network, with 76% of these firms using
a server-based network.
D. They want something that improves business growth by 30% annually.
Answer: A

Simens examen   STI-884   STI-884

NO.11 Which best describes Open Service Delivery in Open Communications?
A. Providing innovative business continuity service to your customer.
B. Implementing Open Communications in a wide variety of forms, including Managed and Hosted
Services.
C. Replacing voice and data infrastructure with new Unified Communications solutions.
D. Enabling integration of mobile communication and location independence across networks.
Answer: B

Simens   STI-884   STI-884   STI-884

NO.12 Which describe the motivations of a Transform customer? (Choose two)
A. Business processes are specific solution led
B. Businessprocesses are architecture led
C. Lowest TCO, CapEx, and best CEBP
D. Solution is ROI based
Answer: B,C

Simens   STI-884   certification STI-884   STI-884   STI-884

NO.13 Which options apply to the Siemens Open Communications strategy? (Choose two)
A. It helps deliver solutions to only small sized businesses.
B. It helps Siemens realize the LifeWorks vision.
C. It provides customers with business value by impacting their growth.
D. It is Siemens' core company strategy and positioning.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 What is an important part of the sales qualification process?
A. Ensuring faster decision making for outstanding customer service.
B. Predicting that the size of the small and medium sized business market for communications is stable.
C. Understanding the psychological drivers of the business owner or manager.
D. Enabling employees to remain connected whilst out of office.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What does "Open" in Open Communications signify?
A. Siemens provides Software Development Kits (SDKs) and Application Program Interfaces (APIs) that
allow better and easier voice integration.
B. Siemens Unified Communications solutions increase the operational costs due to complex
technologies.
C. Siemens Unified Communications solutions require customers to buy the entire solution instead of the
relevant solution elements.
D. Siemens Open Communications strategy is based on the Open Service Delivery principle.
Answer: A

Simens   STI-884   STI-884 examen   STI-884

NO.16 Which best describes the Optimize customers under OpenPath?
A. Customers who will make specific investments in upgrading some elements if the business case is
right.
B. Customers who want to replace the older systems with new unified communication solutions.
C. Customers who want to make operational cost savings with minimal change to their current
infrastructure and systems.
D. Customers who want to focus around the implementation of new applications and solutions in their own
right.
Answer: C

certification Simens   certification STI-884   STI-884

NO.17 How do Siemens Unified Communications solutions facilitate easy growth and expansion for your
customers?
A. Customers can maximize the lifetime value of the solutions and services that you provide them.
B. Customers need to replace their existing applications with new applications.
C. Customers can implement solutions that need a dedicated team to maintain and update frequently.
D. Customers can buy the capabilities that they need now and activate new capabilities with "license
keys" when they are ready in the future.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which are the key reasons that there is a huge shift in the type of technology that small and medium
sized businesses are adopting and are spending money to change their telephone systems? (Choose
three)
A. Personal Mobility.
B. Corporate Excellence.
C. Cost Control.
D. Productivity.
Answer: A,C,D

Simens   STI-884   certification STI-884   STI-884 examen

NO.19 Which is an indicator for opportunity if your prospect is driven by growth through productivity? (Choose
two)
A. The prospect is evaluating phone system options due to business changes or expansions.
B. The prospect is investigating productivity features to make the business more efficient.
C. The prospect needs to install a new phone system to provide for the required capacity of the office
space.
D. The phone system of the prospect is outdated and cannot keep up with the growing business
demands.
Answer: A,B

Simens   STI-884   STI-884 examen

NO.20 How do Siemens Open Communications solutions reduce operating costs? (Choose two)
A. By increasing the number of employees.
B. By simplifying infrastructure and costs.
C. By ensuring that employees work from office.
D. By increasing the efficiency of sales teams.
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: S90-18A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 Service A sends a message to Service B which reads the values in the message header to determine
whether to forward the message to Service C or Service D. Because of recent attacks on Services C and
D, it has been decided to protect the body content of messages using some form of encryption. However,
certain restrictions within the design of Service B will not permit it to be changed to support the encryption
and decryption of messages. Only Services A, C and D can support message encryption and decryption.
Which of the following approaches fulfill these security requirements without changing the role of Service
B?
A. Transport-layer security is implemented between all services.
B. Message-layer security is implemented between all services.
C. Service B is removed. Instead, the routing logic is added to Service A.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-18A examen   S90-18A   S90-18A   S90-18A

NO.3 As a requirement for accessing Service B, Service A needs to encrypt its request message. Service B
decrypts the message, makes some changes, encrypts the message, and then forwards it to Service C.
However, the message does not make it to Service C. Instead, a runtime error is raised by a service agent
that does not support encryption. This service agent only requires access to the message header in order
to route the message to the appropriate instance of Service C. It is therefore decided that the header part
of the message will not be encrypted. Which of the following can be used to address this requirement?
A. certificate authority
B. SAML
C. non-repudiation
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 The application of the Data Origin Authentication pattern only provides message integrity.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

certification SOA Certified Professional   S90-18A examen   S90-18A

NO.5 Service A and Service B belong to Organization A and Service C belongs to Organization B. Service A
sends confidential messages to Service B, which forwards these messages to Service
C. The message sent to Service C is intercepted by a load balancing service agent that determines which
instance of Service C to route the message to. This entire message path needs to be encrypted in order
to ensure message confidentiality from when the message is first sent by Service A until it is received by
an instance of Service C. Organization A doesn't trust any intermediaries that may exist in between
Service B and Service C and also doesn't want to share any keys with Organization B. Furthermore, there
is a requirement to minimize any adverse effects on performance. Which of the following approaches
fulfills these requirements?
A. Use message-layer security by adding symmetric encryption between Services A, B and C. This
way,message content is not available to any intermediaries between Services B and C.
B. Because Service A and Service B exist within the same organizational boundary, use transport-layer
security to provide message confidentiality. Use message-layer security via asymmetric encryption
between Service B and Service C.
C. Use transport-layer security between Service B and Service C and use message-layer security via
asymmetric encryptionbetween Service A and Service B. This way. all the services are secured while at
the same time minimizing the performance degradation between Service B and Service C.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-18A   S90-18A examen

NO.6 Service A relies on a shared identity store. Service B has its own identity store. Service C also has its
own identity store, but must also access the shared identity store used by Service A. Which service has
the least reduction in autonomy as a result of its relationship with identity store mechanism(s)?
A. Service A
B. Service B
C. Service C
D. The autonomy of all services is affected equally
Answer: B

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NO.7 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-18A   S90-18A   certification S90-18A

NO.8 The requirement to defer security related state data at runtime relates directly to the application of which
service-orientation principle?
A. Service Loose Coupling
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Abstraction
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-18A   S90-18A   certification S90-18A

NO.9 Digital signatures use encryption and hashing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SOA Certified Professional   S90-18A   S90-18A   S90-18A examen

NO.10 The application of the Brokered Authentication pattern is best suited for a scenario whereby a service
consumer does not need to re-authenticate itself with multiple services.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-18A   certification S90-18A   S90-18A

NO.11 The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two
domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can
continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SOA Certified Professional   S90-18A   S90-18A

NO.12 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.13 The owner of a service inventory reports that the public key related to a certain private key has been
lost. There is a concern that this was the result of a security breach. A security specialist recommends
contacting the certificate authority in order to add the corresponding certificate to the certificate authority's
Certificate Revocation List (CRL). However, the certificate authority responds by indicating that this is not
necessary. Which of the following answers explains this response?
A. The certificate authority needs to issue a new public key instead.
B. The certificate authority requires that the existing public key needs to be changed within the existing
certificate.
C. Public keys cannot get lost because they are alreadypublicallyavailable.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

SOA Certified Professional   certification S90-18A   certification S90-18A   certification S90-18A

NO.14 A service contract includes a security policy that exposes specific details of the service's underlying
implementation. This is an example of the application of which service-orientation principle?
A. Service Abstraction
B. Service Loose Coupling
C. Standardized Service Contract
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-18A   certification S90-18A   certification S90-18A

NO.15 The SAML and WS-Security industry standards can be applied to the same service composition
architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SOA Certified Professional examen   S90-18A   S90-18A

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Code d'Examen: HIO-301
Nom d'Examen: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Security)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication
C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.2 This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E

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NO.3 Risk Management is a required implementation specification of this standard:
A. Security Incident Procedures
B. Technical Safeguards
C. Security Management Process
D. Information Access Management
E. Security Configuration Management
Answer: C

HIPAA   certification HIO-301   HIO-301   HIO-301 examen   HIO-301   HIO-301

NO.4 This is a self-contained program that uses security flaws such as buffer overflow to remotely
compromise a system and then replicate itself to that system. Identify this program (threat):
A. Trojan horse
B. Trapdoor
C. Master book sector virus
D. Cracker
E. Worm
Answer: E

HIPAA examen   HIO-301 examen   HIO-301 examen

NO.5 The Security Incident Procedures standard includes this implementation specification:
A. Prevention Procedures
B. Alarm Device
C. Threat Analysis Procedures
D. Detection Procedures
E. Response and Reporting
Answer: E

HIPAA   HIO-301   HIO-301 examen   HIO-301

NO.6 This is a documented and routinely updated plan to create and maintain, for a specific period of time,
retrievable copies of information:
A. Disaster Recovery Plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Facility Backup Plan
D. Security Plan
Answer: B

HIPAA   certification HIO-301   HIO-301   HIO-301   HIO-301   HIO-301 examen

NO.7 This addressable implementation specification is about procedures for ° ove r see i n ¡± w orkfor c
members that work with electronic protected health information or in locations where it might be
accessed.
A. Risk Management
B. Sanction Policy
C. Authorization and/or Supervision
D. Unique User Identification
E. Integrity Controls
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Contingency Plan standard includes this addressable implementation specification:
A. Access Authorization Procedure
B. Testing and Revision Procedures
C. Virus Protection Plan Procedure
D. Sanctions Policy and Procedure
E. Authentication Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.9 The HIPAA security standards are designed to be comprehensive, technology neutral and:
A. Based on NIST specifications
B. Based on ISO specifications
C. Reasonable
D. Scalable
E. Implementable
Answer: D

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NO.10 An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
Answer: D

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NO.11 A required implementation specification of the contingency plan standard is:
A. Chain of Trust Agreement
B. Applications and Data Criticality Analysis
C. Security Training
D. Disaster Recovery Plan
E. Internal Audit
Answer: D

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NO.12 This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B

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NO.13 The objective of this implementation specification is to conduct an accurate and thorough assessment
of the potential vulnerabilities to the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic protected health
information held by the covered entity.?
A. Risk Analysis
B. Network Management Policy
C. Security Policy
D. Access Controls
E. Audit Controls
Answer: A

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NO.14 Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.15 ° E va l ua ti o ¡± is a st and ard w i thin
A. Administrative Safeguards
B. Physical Safeguards
C. Technical Safeguards
D. Privacy Safeguards
E. Electronic Signatures
Answer: A

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NO.16 Documented instructions for responding to and reporting security violations are referred to as:
A. Business Associate agreement
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Non-repudiation
D. Sanction Policy
E. Risk Management
Answer: B

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NO.17 This standard requires that the entity establishes agreements with each organization with which it
exchanges data electronically, protecting the security of all such data.
A. Business Associate Contracts and Other Arrangements
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Chain of Trust Contract
D. Trading Partner Agreement
E. Assigned security responsibility
Answer: A

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NO.18 The objective of this standard is to perform a periodic review in response to environmental or
operational changes affecting the security of electronic protected health information.
A. Security Management Process
B. Integrity
C. Audit Controls
D. Evaluation
E. Transmission Security
Answer: D

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NO.19 The Security Management Process standard includes this implementation specification: A. Risk
Reduction Policy
B. Audit Control
C. Risk Management
D. Detection Procedures
E. Training
Answer: C

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NO.20 This is a program that is a type of malicious code. It is unauthorized code that is contained within a
legitimate program and performs functions unknown to the user.
A. Trojan horse
B. Distributed Denial of Service
C. Stealth virus
D. Polymorphic virus
E. Denial of Service
Answer: A

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